Is Forex Trading Permissible?

29th June 2020

 

 السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: What is the ruling on Forex trading in your view using the CFD method? Do you agree with those who prohibit it or not?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

In reference to your query, Forex trading is one of the most prevalent forms of online trading platforms with an estimated trading worth $5 trillion. It is based on a risk model where the trader stakes his money to earn profit. The outcome however is uncertain as to whether he will gain profit or suffer a loss. We have reviewed many fatawas on this topic and most are inclined towards its impermissibility due to it violating many of Islamic precepts. A thorough research into Forex trading, we have also concluded that Forex trading is not permissible for the reasons that will be discussed below.[1]

To first begin with, Forex trading – or sometimes referred to as FX – is a global market wherein traders buy and sell foreign currencies. It is not similar to for instance a person exchanging currency when travelling abroad who then uses the local currency for spending. Contrarily, Foreign exchange are traded in the hope of obtaining profit from a movement in the exchange rate. The entire market is based on speculation as the outcome of return is unknown. All traders are required to go through a broker or a dealer – the middle-man – who facilitates the trade. The currencies one intends to trade are paired e.g. GBP/USD. The currency you ‘go long’ with is the base currency you expect to make profit on. This appears first in the sequence so in this case the GBP. The second currency i.e. USD is the counter. Currency rates change almost every second so the trader observes to wait for a favourable exchange rate to derive profit. For instance, if the exchange rate between £ and $ is £1 = $1.23 and someone exchanges £300 for dollars then he will receive $369. If at a later date the value drops to £1 to $1.20 then when exchanged to pounds (from $369) the trader receives £307.50, with £7.50 profit. But if the value let’s say increases £1=1.24 then (after exchanging from $369) to pounds then the trader receives £297.58 with £2.42 loss. As everything is done through a broker, a small sum us required by the trader to make a trade, known as the margin.

Traditionally trades have been carried out using contracts for difference (CFD’s) which are derivatives contracts where the difference between the opening and closing trades is the cash amount settled. No exchange of physical goods takes place and no real ownership of the asset is established. However, some of the modern platforms allow the ‘direct trading of currencies’ but even in this case, no actual ownership of the currencies take place. The ‘profits’ made from forex trades is based on very small movements in exchange rates as such in order to increase the ‘profit’ made. The trader is required to leverage his margin (the amount he deposited to open a trade). Leverage refers to the ratio of the margin to the credit loaned by the broker i.e. it is a borrowed amount so that the trader can increase his returns. So, let’s assume that if a trader deposited £100 and leveraged that by 10 to make an investment then the amount he would actually have invested would be £1,000 which he would be fully liable for if he lost all in his trade. In addition, the traders are required to pay a commission either through the spread (the difference between the buy price and the sell price) or based on a % of the profit (which in reality is interest).[2]

There are many Sharī῾ah violations which many contemporary fatawas point out that make Forex trading impermissible in Islām.

  1. Future Sales – Amongst the stipulated conditions for a valid transaction is that the exchange of price and commodity must not take place at a future date. In other words, it is mandatory for exchange to take place on the spot as indicated in the Prophetic narration when he said, hand for hand meaning spot transaction. In the Forex trading, the purpose is not to buy the currency but to accrue profit based on the different values favourable to the person. Future sales moreover result in deferral of debts exchanged on both sides that has been forbidden in a famous Hadeeth, prohibited is the sale of deferred debts with another differed debt (kāli bil Kāli). So no transaction takes into effect immediately.[3]
  2. Absence of ownership – The paramount of all is the that Forex infringes the fundamental rule of ownership of the commodity. The Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam said, A man is not permitted to sell that which he does not own.” [4] The trader does not own anything he sells nor takes actual delivery of the currency but silently observes to speculate the movement of the currencies of one ‘going along’ and the other ‘going short’. In the background, the currencies have been transacted multiple times before settling on the final buying and selling price.
  3. Profiting from Interest – Another key aspect warranting its prohibition is the interest accrued on the leverage amount arranged through the broker. As explained above that the broker loans the trader which he must then repay with interest. The profit earned on the borrowed amount is in reality interest because the profit in of itself is not earned in exchange of any commodity and moreover, the trader has no ownership of that.
  4. Gharrar and Qimar – This means that in the Sharī῾ah all transactions must be based on certainty and that money is not staked for an uncertain outcome.[5] In Forex trading, the outcome of profit or loss in unknown and contingent on chance. The movement of values are all speculated by the broker.

So to conclude our answer, given the aforementioned Sharī῾ah violations, Forex market using CFD is not permissible.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

 

Written and researched by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

 

 

[1] Amjad Mohammad, (Sept 2017), Is Forex Trading Permissible According to the Sharī῾ah? Markazul Ifta, UK

Mufti Faraz etal, (August 2018), Retail Forex Trading: Views from the front Lines of Islamic Finance, Shariyah Review Bureau, UK

https://www.fxcm.com/au/forex/what-is-forex/ [accessed 24th June 2020]

https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=ritical+evaluation+of+the+compliance+of+online+Islamic+FOREX+trading+with+Islamic+principles+pdf&oq=ritical+evaluation+of+the+compliance+of+online+Islamic+FOREX+trading+with+Islamic+principles+pdf&aqs=chrome..69i57.1486j0j8&sourceid=chrome&ie=UTF-8 [accessed 24th June 2020]

https://darulfiqh.com/knowledgebase/is-retail-forex-trading-shariah-compliant/ [accessed 24th June 2020]

https://daruliftaa.com/business-trade/trading-in-currencies/ [accessed 24th June 2020]

Mufti Muhammad Taqi Usmani (2007), Is Forex Currency Trading halal? https://www.albalagh.net/qa/Forex_currency_trading.shtml [accessed 24th June 2020]

 

[2] This detail was included by Maulana Abdul Mothin who has background experience of the Forex trading market.

[3] See Fiqh buyoo vol 1, p. 383-4, 483-4

Bayhaqi,

بابُ ما جاءَ فى النَّهىِ عن بَيعِ الدَّينِ بالدَّينِ

عن ابنِ عُمَرَ، أن النَّبِيَّ -صلي الله عليه وسلم- نَهَى عن بَيعِ الكالِى بالكالِى

[4] Ibn Majah no; 2187

بَابُ النَّهْيِ عَنْ بَيْعِ مَا لَيْسَ عِنْدَكَ، وَعَنْ رِبْحِ مَا لَمْ يُضْمَنْ

عَنْ حَكِيمِ بْنِ حِزَامٍ، قَالَ: قُلْتُ: يَا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ الرَّجُلُ يَسْأَلُنِي الْبَيْعَ وَلَيْسَ عِنْدِي، أَفَأَبِيعُهُ؟ قَالَ: «لَا تَبِعْ مَا لَيْسَ عِنْدَكَ»

 

Nasai, No: 4611

بَيْعُ مَا لَيْسَ عِنْدَ الْبَائِعِ

عَنْ عَمْرِو بْنِ شُعَيْبٍ، عَنْ أَبِيهِ، عَنْ جَدِّهِ قَالَ: قَالَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ: «لَيْسَ عَلَى رَجُلٍ بَيْعٌ فِيمَا لَا يَمْلِكُ»

 

[5] Fiqh buyoo vol 1, p. 339-40, 344-6

Non-Muslim Couple Accepting Islām

Non-Muslim Couple Accepting Islām

22nd June 2020

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: What happens to a non-Muslim couple who are married, and both of them convert to Islām? What is the ruling of their marriage according to Hanafi fiqh?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

In reference to your query if both husband and wife[1] accept Islām then the marriage between them will remain valid.[2] If however, one partner refuses to accept Islām then the marriage breaks on the basis of rejection.[3]

 

[Allāh Knows Best]

 

Written by:  Apa Gul-e-Maryam        Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

[1] Badai Sanai, Kitab Nikah, Vol 2, Pg 270

ومنها أن لا تكون المرأة مشركة إذا كان الرجل مسلما، فلا يجوز للمسلم أن ينكح المشركة؛ لقوله تعالى: {ولا تنكحوا المشركات حتى يؤمن} [البقرة: 221] ، ويجوز أن ينكح الكتابية؛ لقوله عز وجل: {والمحصنات من الذين أوتوا الكتاب من قبلكم}

 

[2]Hidaya, Kitab Nikah, Vol 1, Pg 213

وإذا أسلمت المرأة وزوجها كافر عرض القاضي عليه الإسلام فإن أسلم فهي امرأته وإن أبى فرق بينهما وكان ذلك طلاقا عند أبي حنيفة ومحمد رحمهما الله وإن أسلم الزوج وتحته مجوسية عرض عليها الإسلام فإن أسلمت فهي امرأته وإن أبت فرق القاضي بينهما ولم تكن الفرقة بينهما طلاقا

 

 

[3] Ikhtiyaar Ali Ta’leel Mukhtaat, Kitab Nikah, Vol 3, Pg 113

قال: (وإذا أسلمت امرأة الكافر عرض عليه الإسلام) تحصيلا لمصالح النكاح بالإسلام؛ لأنها قد فاتت بإسلامها. (فإن أسلم فهي امرأته) كما إذا أسلما معا، (وإلا فرق بينهما) ؛ لأن الإسلام لا يصلح أن يكون سببا للفرقة؛ لما أنه طاعة وعبادة، فيجعل إباؤه سببا لفوات مصالح النكاح عقوبة. (وتكون الفرقة طلاقا)

Removing Bodily Hair with Laser

                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                22nd June 2020

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: What is the ruling regarding laser hair removal?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer:

In reference to your query laser hair removal is a cosmetic procedure that uses a powerful laser or intense pulsed light (IPL) to remove unwanted hair. This light source heats and destroys hair follicles in the skin, that disrupts hair growth.[1] It is permissible for a woman to remove any bodily and facial hair – except for the eyebrows – via any method such as laser hair removal, waxing, shaving etc as no clear prohibition of removing any bodily hair is reported in the Hadeeth as long as the treatment does not harm the person in any way.[2]

It must be noted that if she needs to remove the hair of the area between her navel and knees then it will not be permissible for anyone else other than herself or her husband to remove it as this area is classed as her awrah – private area – to other women which cannot be shown to anyone, except to her husband.[3]

[Allāh Knows Best]

 

Written by:  Apa Sajeda        Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

[1] https://www.nhs.uk/conditions/cosmetic-procedures/laser-hair-removal/

 

[2]Ibn Abideen shami, Radul Muhtar ala Durril Mukhtar, Kitabul Hazr wal Ibaha, vol 6, pg 373

( قَوْلُهُ وَالنَّامِصَةُ إلَخْ ) ذَكَرَهُ فِي الِاخْتِيَارِ أَيْضًا وَفِي الْمُغْرِبِ .
النَّمْصُ : نَتْفُ الشَّعْرِ وَمِنْهُ الْمِنْمَاصُ الْمِنْقَاشُ ا هـ وَلَعَلَّهُ مَحْمُولٌ عَلَى مَا إذَا فَعَلَتْهُ لِتَتَزَيَّنَ لِلْأَجَانِبِ ، وَإِلَّا فَلَوْ كَانَ فِي وَجْهِهَا شَعْرٌ يَنْفِرُ زَوْجُهَا عَنْهَا بِسَبَبِهِ ، فَفِي تَحْرِيمِ إزَالَتِهِ بُعْدٌ ، لِأَنَّ الزِّينَةَ لِلنِّسَاءِ مَطْلُوبَةٌ لِلتَّحْسِينِ ، إلَّا أَنْ يُحْمَلَ عَلَى مَا لَا ضَرُورَةَ إلَيْهِ لِمَا فِي نَتْفِهِ بِالْمِنْمَاصِ مِنْ الْإِيذَاءِ .
وَفِي تَبْيِينِ الْمَحَارِمِ إزَالَةُ الشَّعْرِ مِنْ الْوَجْهِ حَرَامٌ إلَّا إذَا نَبَتَ لِلْمَرْأَةِ لِحْيَةٌ أَوْ شَوَارِبُ فَلَا تَحْرُمُ إزَالَتُهُ بَلْ تُسْتَحَبُّ ا هـ ، وَفِي التَّتَارْخَانِيَّة عَنْ الْمُضْمَرَاتِ : وَلَا بَأْسَ بِأَخْذِ الْحَاجِبَيْنِ وَشَعْرِ وَجْهِهِ مَا لَمْ يُشْبِهْ الْمُخَنَّثَ ا هـ وَمِثْلُهُ فِي الْمُجْتَبَى تَأَمَّلْ

 

Saheeh al-Bukhari

عن علقمة قال لعن عبد الله الواشمات والمتنمصات والمتفلجات للحسن المغيرات خلق الله فقالت أم يعقوب ما هذا ؟ قال عبد الله وما لي لا ألعن من لعن رسول الله وفي كتاب الله ؟ قالت والله لقد قرأت ما بين اللوحين فما وجدته قال والله لئن قرأتيه لقد وجدتيه { وما آتاكم الرسول فخذوه وما نهاكم عنه فانتهوا }

 

[3] Fatawa Hindiyya, Kitabul Karahiyah, vol 5, p327

وَأَمَّا بَيَانُ الْقِسْمِ الثَّانِي) فَنَقُولُ: نَظَرُ الْمَرْأَةِ إلَى الْمَرْأَةِ كَنَظَرِ الرَّجُلِ إلَى الرَّجُلِ، كَذَا فِي الذَّخِيرَةِ. وَهُوَ الْأَصَحُّ، هَكَذَا فِي الْكَافِي. وَلَا يَجُوزُ لِلْمَرْأَةِ أَنْ تَنْظُرَ إلَى بَطْنِ امْرَأَةٍ عَنْ شَهْوَةٍ، كَذَا فِي السِّرَاجِيَّةِ. وَلَا يَنْبَغِي لِلْمَرْأَةِ الصَّالِحَةِ أَنْ تَنْظُرَ إلَيْهَا الْمَرْأَةُ الْفَاجِرَةُ؛ لِأَنَّهَا تَصِفُهَا عِنْدَ الرِّجَالِ فَلَا تَضَعُ جِلْبَابَهَا، وَلَا خِمَارَهَا عِنْدَهَا، وَلَا يَحِلُّ أَيْضًا لِامْرَأَةٍ مُؤْمِنَةٍ أَنْ تَكْشِفَ عَوْرَتَهَا عِنْدَ أَمَةٍ مُشْرِكَةٍ أَوْ كِتَابِيَّةٍ إلَّا أَنْ تَكُونَ أَمَةً لَهَا، كَذَا فِي السِّرَاجِ الْوَهَّاجِ.

The Hadīth on Playing with Dice

17th June 2020

 

Question: There is a Hadīth that was circulated that those who play dice have indeed disobeyed Allāh. Kindly elaborate on whether this is true or not and if playing a board game with dice is prohibited or not?

 

 الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

In reference to your query, the Hadīth you are referring to is authentically established. The Arabic term used is nard which is loosely translated as dice, feeding the impression that all modern forms of board games with dice are by default prohibited. A detailed study of the various commentaries suggests that the dice game prohibited in the Hadīth refers to a particular form of a game that was played in those days with specific motives. I will present a few Ahādīth on the topic with a commentary which includes the definition, the differences amongst scholars and the reason for its prohibition. There are various forms of board games with dice today such as snakes and ladders, backgammon, monopoly, Ludo etc all of which are subjected to a specific set of game rules and played differently. To discuss each and every board game here is beyond the scope of our discussion as not all are similar in their ruling considering that they are all different. A summative overview of the conditions, therefore, will be presented towards the end of the discussion that will hopefully enable an individual Muslim to determine the permissibility and non-permissibility of particular board games.

To begin with, the Hadīth which you are referring to is as follows. Sayyidunā Abū Mūsa al-Ash’ari radhiyallahu anhu relates that the Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam said, “Whoever plays with nard (dice) has indeed disobeyed Allāh and his Messenger.”[1] In another narration the Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam said, Whoever plays with nardasheer (dice) then it is as if he has immersed his hands inside the flesh and blood of a swine.”[2] Several terms have been reported in reference to the prohibition of dice such as; نَّرْدِ, نَّرْدَشِيرِ and كِعَابِ but the most common amongst them is the word نَّرْدِ. Nard was a type of game invented by the Persians, a cube-like shape made from wood with multiple sides similar to modern dice that was used for fortune-telling, an indication to one’s destiny or for gambling. Shihab Khafagi, a prominent lexicalist stated,

“….nard is what the Persians invented indicating to one’s destiny or an indication of one’s intellect interfering with acquiring (something) of high status.”[3]

Shaykh Zurqāni rahimahullah in his commentary of Muwatta explains why the Persians used to play nard,

“It is said that previously when they (Persians) observed into worldly affairs, they would use two methods; the first was that which relates to unanimously acquiesce on a matter and for that, they invented the nard so that the individual would know (what to do) by it, and the second was that which relates to advancing and strategic planning for which they invented chess (shatranj) so that the individual is able to perceive (something) by it and (perceive) the threats that could (potentially) arise from such similar moves.”[4]

Shaykh Zurqani rahimahullah further on expounds on the origin of the nard game as follows;

“It is said that the reason for its prohibition is because its founder was Sabūr Ibn Ardasheer the first of the kings of Sāsān (in Persia) because its cuboid shape represented the earth; the division of four sides was to resemble the four earthly seasons, thirty-men (playing it) represented thirty days, the black and white colour represented the day and night, its twelve houses represented twelve months of the year and the three cubes to represent the heavenly decrees in matters that were either in favour or against a human and what is (decreed) for him or not. These attributes with (earthly) causes by which a human being strives for and plays with it to gain something, results in him falling under the severe warning in his effort of reviving the Magian tradition and arrogance against Allāh.”[5]

Imām Shawkāni rahimahullah presents another reason why it was prohibited stating that nard also originated to represent astronomy in the shape of the sun and moon and (attach) other influential effects to it, knowing that all matters are decreed by Allāh Almighty and that a person’s acquisition has no interference in His decree. The player would, therefore, anticipate what was decreed for him by such games. It is thus for this reason that the player has disobeyed Allāh Almighty and His Messenger sallallahu alayhi wasallam and contaminated his hands by it with impurity (as if he has dipped his hands in the flesh of swine and blood).”[6]

The forgoing commentaries allude that nard was a pagan tradition used for fortune-telling and future prediction for the individual. Future predictions were made based on the earthy resemblances attached to this cube-like shape so to determine the outcome of one’s destiny in the world. The knowledge of one’s future destiny is amongst Allāh’s Almighty divine secrets that transcend human ability. Allāh Almighty and his beloved Messenger sallallahu alayhi wasallam severely reproach fortune-telling because of the individual attempting to interfere with Allāh’s Almighty divine destiny which is not allowed. Apart from the above, scholars have explained other reasons of its prohibition such as it causing dissent and animosity amongst people, hindering from Allāh’s Almighty remembrance and engaging the heart (with things other than Allāh Almighty) which are all prohibited by consensus.[7] Other reasons include that players used to gamble by betting against each other. If nard was played without the intention of gambling (and obviously without the intention of fortune-telling as was commonly practised amongst the Persians) then the scholars have differed. Mullah Ali Qāri rahimahullah a Hanafi Hadīth master maintains that nard itself entails gambling which is unconditionally prohibited.[8] This is the mainstream position of the Hanafi jurists who adduce the unconditional application of the Hadīth that prohibits it.[9] Contrarily, some scholars, for instance, Sa’īd ibn Musayyib rahimahullah only forbade it if gambling was involved otherwise not prohibited (and also that by playing one does not become heedless from the remembrance of Allāh Almighty). It is reported that the companion Ibn Mughaffal radhiyallahu anhu used to play this game with his wife.[10] Imām Qurtubi rahimahullah after discussing both views himself concludes that despite it was played primarily to gamble, its prohibition should be taken unconditionally as in, one cannot play it even if no gambling was involved.[11] Essentially he argues that the unconditional prohibition is more sound regardless if the players intended to gamble or not.

To summarise the above, the underpinning reasons why nard – commonly translated as dice – was prohibited can be reduced to one of two reasons;

  1. Nard was a type of game with its historic roots tracing back to the Persians. The Persians used to play nard for future prediction and fortune-telling So arguably, the seemingly unconditional prohibition was in fact in particular reference to its common practice at the time.
  2. Many other harmful effects followed as a result of playing nard such as contestants gambling against each other, otherwise it hindered from Allāh’s Almighty remembrance and lead to dissent amongst people.

Concerning the first point that, given the specific reason why people played with cube-like dice in those days, literal application of the Hadīth to unconditionally ban all forms of modern board games with dice is questionable considering that most board games do not involve fortune-telling but rather played for past time leisure. It is therefore essential to resort to the general Sharī῾ah guidelines to determine the legitimate status of modern-board games with dice. In this regard, Shaykh Mufti Taqi Usmani Sahib’s explanation in his famous commentary of Sahīh Muslim proves to be very useful wherein he expounds on the rules that generically apply to all modern-day games to determine their permissibility and prohibition. To summarise, he states that the Sharī῾ah does not prohibit individuals from physical (or mental) exercise to comfort the heart where it contains general benefit for people. It, however, forbids extremity and over-indulgence that causes harm to an individual be it in this world or in the next. The principle about games whether permitted or prohibited depends on the intention, purpose and weight of benefit and harm. Games that are beneficial like horse racing, swimming, archery, playing with family etc, with good intentions are permitted and at times desirable. Contrary, those that are harmful, sinful, evil intentions and hinder from the remembrance of Allāh Almighty are prohibited. Likewise, those that have been proscribed in the Hadīth such as chess and nard (as explained above) are prohibited by default. As for those that the Sharī῾ah has not categorically forbidden then;

  • If proven through experience that such games are detrimental and contain more harm than the benefit or hinder from Allāh’s Almighty remembrance then they are not permitted.
  • If it’s none of the above rather for mere leisure (with no benefit) then disliked (makrooh) but if the benefit can be derived therefrom for the sake of public welfare then it is permitted and at times preferable.[12]

One can also add to the above that the game must not be played for gambling nor involve anything unIslāmic (such as fortune-telling as described above or free mixing with opposite non-mahram genders etc).[13] To conclude our answer in light of the above explanation; modern-day board games with dice (with the exception of chess which is clearly forbidden in the Hadith) are not prohibited provided if;

  1. One does not overly indulge in it causing one to become heedless from Allāh’s Almighty remembrance or to neglect one’s obligations such as Salāh.
  2. Not harmful to one’s physical or mental well-being.
  3. If played due to pass time then it is disliked but not Haram. One must avoid habitually playing it if it serves no benefit.
  4. Not played to gamble against other contestants.
  5. Does not cause dissent or hatred between people.
  6. Does not involve anything as part of the game that conflicts with the fundamental Islamic values.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

Written and researched by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

 

[1] Abū Dawūd, No: 4938

حَدَّثَنَا عَبْدُ اللَّهِ بْنُ مَسْلَمَةَ، عَنْ مَالِكٍ، عَنْ مُوسَى بْنِ مَيْسَرَةَ، عَنْ سَعِيدِ بْنِ أَبِي هِنْدٍ، عَنْ أَبِي مُوسَى الْأَشْعَرِيِّ، أَنَّ رَسُولَ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ، قَالَ: «مَنْ لَعِبَ بِالنَّرْدِ فَقَدْ عَصَى اللَّهَ وَرَسُولَهُ»

 

[2] Abū Dawūd, No: 4939

(وَعَنْ بُرَيْدَةَ أَنَّ النَّبِيَّ – صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ – قَالَ: «مَنْ لَعِبَ بِالنَّرْدَشِيرِ فَكَأَنَّمَا صَبَغَ يَدَهُ فِي لَحْمِ خِنْزِيرٍ وَدَمِهِ»

[3] Khafagi, Sharh Durrah Ghawās, vol 1, p. 480

شرح دره غواص

(ويقولون للعبة الهندية) وهي معروفة، وضعها حكيم يسمى «صصة» لملك الهند يسمى «هيت» في مقابلة «النرد» الذي وضعه الفرس إشارة إلى القضاء والقدر، إشارة إلى أن للعقل دخلاً في نيل المراتب العلية

 

[4] Sharhu Zurqani alal Muwatta of Imām Malik, vol 4, p. 564

بِفَتْحِ النُّونِ وَإِسْكَانِ الرَّاءِ مَعْنَاهُ بِلُغَةِ الْفُرْسِ: حُلْوٌ، وَيُسَمَّى الْكِعَابَ وَالْأَرِقَ والنَّرْدَشِيرَ، قِيلَ: إِنَّ الْأَوَائِلَ لَمَّا نَظَرُوا فِي أُمُورِ الدُّنْيَا، وَجَدُوهَا عَلَى أُسْلُوبَيْنِ: أَحَدُهُمَا مَا يَجْرِي بِحُكْمِ الِاتِّفَاقِ، فَوَضَعُوا لَهُ النَّرْدَ لِتَشْعُرَ النَّفْسُ بِهِ. وَالثَّانِي: مَا يَجْرِي بِحُكْمِ السَّعْيِ، وَالتَّحَيُّلِ، فَوَضَعُوا لَهُ الشَّطْرَنْجَ، لِتَشْعُرَ النَّفْسُ بِذَلِكَ، وَتَنْهَضَ الْخَوَاطِرُ إِلَى عَمَلِ مِثْلِهِ مِنَ الْمَطْلُوبَاتِ، وَيُقَالُ: إِنَّ وَاضِعَ النَّرْدِ وَضَعَهُ عَلَى رَأْيِ أَصْحَابِ الْجَبْرِ، وَوَاضِعَ الشَّطْرَنْجِ وَضَعَهُ عَلَى رَأْيِ الْقَدَرِيَّةِ

 

[5] Sharhu Zurqani alal Muwatta of Imām Malik, vol 4, p. 565

وَقِيلَ: سَبَبُ حُرْمَتِهِ أَنَّ وَاضِعَهُ سَابُورُ بْنُ أَرْدَشِيرَ أَوَّلُ مُلُوكِ سَاسَانَ، شَبَّهَ رُقْعَتَهُ بِوَجْهِ الْأَرْضِ، وَالتَّقْسِيمَ الرُّبَاعِيَّ بِالْفُصُولِ الْأَرْبَعَةِ، وَالشُّخُوصَ الثَلَاثِينَ بِثَلَاثِينَ يَوْمًا، وَالسَّوَادَ وَالْبَيَاضَ بِاللَّيْلِ وَالنَّهَارِ، وَالْبُيُوتَ الِاثْنَيْ عَشَرَ بِشُهُورِ السَّنَةِ، وَالْكِعَابَ الثَّلَاثَةَ بِالْأَقْضِيَةِ السَّمَاوِيَّةِ فِي مَا لِلْإِنْسَانِ وَعَلَيْهِ، وَمَا لَيْسَ لَهُ وَلَا عَلَيْهِ، وَالْخِصَالَ بِالْأَغْرَاضِ الَّتِي يَسْعَى الْإِنْسَانُ لِأَجْلِهَا، وَاللَّعِبَ بِهَا بِالْكَسْبِ، فَصَارَ مَنْ يَلْعَبُ بِهِ حَقِيقًا بِالْوَعِيدِ لِاجْتِهَادِهِ فِي إِحْيَاءِ سُنَّةِ الْمَجُوسِ الْمُسْتَكْبِرَةِ عَلَى اللَّهِ.

Faydhul Qadeer, vol 6, p. 219

(من لعب بالنرد فقد عصى الله ورسوله) وفي رواية مسلم ” من لعب بالنردشير فكأنما صنع يده في لحم الخنزير ودمه ” والنردشير هو النرد ومعناه الفرس حلو قيل: سبب حرمته أن واضعه سابور بن أزدشير أول ملوك ساسان شبه رقعته بوجه الأرض والتقسيم الرباعي بالفصول الأربعة والشخوص الثلاثين بثلاثين يوما والسواد والبياض بالليل والنهار والبيوت الاثني عشر بشهور السنة والكعاب الثلاثة بالأقضية السماوية فيما للإنسان وعليه وما ليس له ولا عليه والخصال بالأغراض التي يسعى الإنسان واللعب بها بالكسب فصار من يلعب بها حقيقا بالوعيد المفهوم من تشبيه أحد الأمرين بالآخر لاجتهاده في إحياء سنة المجوس المستكبرة على الله. وقد اتفق السلف على حرمة اللعب به ونقل ابن قدامة عليه الإجماع ولا يخلو عن نزاع قال الزمخشري: دخلت في زمن الحداثة على شيخ يلعب بالنرد مع آخر يعرف بازدشير فقلت الأزدشير النردشير بئس المولى وبئس العشير

 

[6] Shawkāni, Nayl al-Awtār, vol 8, p. 107

[بَابُ تَحْرِيمِ الْقِمَارِ وَاللَّعِبِ بِالنَّرْدِ وَمَا فِي مَعْنَى ذَلِكَ]

قَوْلُهُ: (مَنْ لَعِبَ بِالنَّرْدَشِيرِ) قَالَ النَّوَوِيُّ: النَّرْدَشِيرُ هُوَ النَّرْدُ عَجَمِيٌّ مُعَرَّبٌ، وَشِيرُ مَعْنَاهُ حُلْوٌ، وَكَذَا فِي النِّهَايَةِ، وَقِيلَ: هُوَ خَشَبَةٌ قَصِيرَةٌ ذَاتُ فُصُوصٍ يُلْعَبُ بِهَا. وَقِيلَ إنَّمَا سُمِّيَ بِذَلِكَ الِاسْمِ لِأَنَّ وَاضِعَهُ أَرْدَشِيرُ بْنُ بَابِكَ مِنْ مُلُوكِ الْفُرْسِ قَالَ النَّوَوِيُّ: وَهَذَا الْحَدِيثُ حُجَّةٌ لِلشَّافِعِيِّ وَالْجُمْهُورِ فِي تَحْرِيمِ اللَّعِبِ بِالنَّرْدِ. وَقَالَ أَبُو إِسْحَاقَ الْمَرْوَزِيِّ: يُكْرَهُ وَلَا يُحَرَّمُ. قِيلَ: وَسَبَبُ تَحْرِيمِهِ أَنَّ وَضْعَهُ عَلَى هَيْئَةِ الْفَلَكِ بِصُورَةِ شَمْسٍ وَقَمَرٍ وَتَأْثِيرَاتٍ مُخْتَلِفَةٍ تَحْدُثُ عِنْدَ اقْتِرَانَاتِ أَوْضَاعِهِ لِيَدُلَّ بِذَلِكَ عَلَى أَنَّ أَقْضِيَةَ الْأُمُورِ كُلِّهَا مُقَدَّرَةٌ بِقَضَاءِ اللَّهِ لَيْسَ لِلْكَسْبِ فِيهَا مَدْخَلٌ، وَلِهَذَا يَنْتَظِرُ اللَّاعِبُ بِهِ مَا يُقْضَى لَهُ بِهِ وَالتَّمْثِيلُ بِقَوْلِهِ ” فَكَأَنَّمَا صَبَغَ يَدَهُ فِي لَحْمِ خِنْزِيرٍ. . . إلَخْ ” فِيهِ إشَارَةٌ إلَى التَّحْرِيمِ لِأَنَّ التَّلَوُّثَ بِالنَّجَاسَاتِ مِنْ الْمُحَرَّمَاتِ. وَقَوْلُهُ: ” فَقَدْ عَصَى اللَّهَ وَرَسُولَهُ ” تَصْرِيحٌ بِمَا يُفِيدُ التَّحْرِيمَ.

 

[7] Sharhu Zurqani alal Muwatta of Imām Malik, vol 4, p. 565

(فَقَدْ عَصَى اللَّهَ وَرَسُولَهَ) ; لِأَنَّهُ يُوقِعُ الْعَدَاوَةَ، وَالْبَغْضَاءَ، وَيَصُدُّ عَنْ ذِكْرِ اللَّهِ وَعَنِ الصَّلَاةِ، وَيَشْغَلُ الْقَلْبَ، فَيَحْرُمُ اللَّعِبُ بِهِ بِاتِّفَاقِ السَّلَفِ، بَلْ حَكَى بَعْضُهُمْ عَلَيْهِ الْإِجْمَاعَ وَنُوزِعَ.

 

[8] Mullah Ali Qāri, Mirqat Sharh al-Mishkāt, vol 7, p. 2856

[بَابُ التَّصَاوِيرِ]

(وَعَنْ أَبِي مُوسَى الْأَشْعَرِيِّ أَنَّ رَسُولَ اللَّهِ – صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ – قَالَ: «مَنْ لَعِبَ بِالنَّرْدِ فَقَدْ عَصَى اللَّهَ وَرَسُولَهُ» ) : لِأَنَّهُ قِمَارٌ حَقِيقَةً أَوْ صُورَةً وَقَدْ تَقَدَّمَ أَنَّهُ حَرَامٌ مُطْلَقًا (رَوَاهُ أَحْمَدُ، وَأَبُو دَاوُدَ) : وَكَذَا ابْنُ مَاجَهْ وَالْحَاكِمُ

 

[9] Kasān, Badā’i Sanāi, Kitāb al-Istihsan, vol 5 p. 127

وَيُكْرَهُ اللَّعِبُ بِالنَّرْدِ وَالشِّطْرَنْجِ وَالْأَرْبَعَةِ عَشْرٍ وَهِيَ لَعِبٌ تَسْتَعْمِلُهُ الْيَهُودُ لِأَنَّهُ قِمَارٌ أَوْ لَعِبٌ وَكُلُّ ذَلِكَ حَرَامٌ (أَمَّا) الْقِمَارُ فَلِقَوْلِهِ عَزَّ وَجَلَّ {يَا أَيُّهَا الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا إِنَّمَا الْخَمْرُ وَالْمَيْسِرُ وَالأَنْصَابُ وَالأَزْلامُ رِجْسٌ} [المائدة: 90] وَهُوَ الْقِمَارُ كَذَا رَوَى ابْنُ عَبَّاسٍ وَابْنُ سَيِّدِنَا عُمَرَ – رَضِيَ اللَّهُ عَنْهُمْ – وَرُوِيَ عَنْ مُجَاهِدٍ وَسَعِيدِ بْنِ جُبَيْرٍ وَالشَّعْبِيِّ وَغَيْرِهِمْ – رَضِيَ اللَّهُ عَنْهُمْ – أَنَّهُمْ قَالُوا الْمَيْسِرُ الْقِمَارُ كُلُّهُ حَتَّى الْجَوْزُ الَّذِي يَلْعَبُ بِهِ الصِّبْيَانُ وَعَنْ سَيِّدِنَا عَلِيٍّ – رَضِيَ اللَّهُ عَنْهُ – أَنَّهُ قَالَ الشِّطْرَنْجُ مَيْسِرُ الْأَعَاجِمِ وَعَنْ النَّبِيِّ – صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ – أَنَّهُ قَالَ «مَا أَلْهَاكُمْ عَنْ ذِكْرِ اللَّهِ فَهُوَ مَيْسِرٌ» (وَأَمَّا) اللَّعِبُ فَلِقَوْلِهِ – عَلَيْهِ الصَّلَاةُ وَالسَّلَامُ – «كُلُّ لَعِبٍ حَرَامٌ إلَّا مُلَاعَبَةُ الرَّجُلِ امْرَأَتَهُ وَقَوْسَهُ وَفَرَسَهُ»

 

[10] Mullah Ali Qāri, Mirqat Sharh al-Mishkāt, vol 7, p. 2803

(وَالضَّرْبَ بِالْكِعَابِ) : بِكَسْرِ الْكَافِ جَمْعُ كَعْبٍ، وَهُوَ فُصُوصُ النَّرْدِ، وَيُضْرَبُ بِهَا عَلَى عَادَتِهِمْ، وَالْمُرَادُ النَّهْيُ عَنِ اللَّعِبِ بِالنَّرْدِ وَهُوَ حَرَامٌ كَرِهَهُ – عَلَيْهِ الصَّلَاةُ وَالسَّلَامُ – وَالصَّحَابَةُ. وَقِيلَ: كَانَ ابْنُ مُغَفَّلٍ يَلْعَبُ مَعَ امْرَأَتِهِ، وَرَخَصَّ فِيهِ ابْنُ الْمُسَيَّبِ عَلَى غَيْرِ قِمَارٍ، وَفِي الْجَامِعِ الصَّغِيرِ بِرِوَايَةِ أَحْمَدَ وَأَبِي دَاوُدَ وَابْنِ مَاجَهْ وَالْحَاكِمِ، عَنْ أَبِي مُوسَى مَرْفُوعًا ” «مَنْ لَعِبَ بِالنَّرْدِ فَقَدْ عَصَى اللَّهَ وَرَسُولَهُ» “. وَفِي مَعْنَاهُ اللَّعِبُ بِالشِّطْرَنْجِ، وَهُوَ مَكْرُوهٌ عِنْدَنَا، مُبَاحٌ عِنْدَ الشَّافِعِيَّةِ بِشُرُوطٍ مُعْتَبَرَةٍ لَهُمْ

 

[11] Qurtubi, Ahkām al-Qurān, vol 8, p. 339

السَّابِعَةُ: قَالَ عُلَمَاؤُنَا: النَّرْدُ قِطَعٌ مَمْلُوءَةٌ مِنْ خَشَبِ الْبَقْسِ وَمِنْ عَظْمِ الْفِيلِ، وَكَذَا هُوَ الشِّطْرَنْجُ إِذْ هُوَ أَخُوهُ غُذِّيَ بِلَبَانِهِ. وَالنَّرْدُ هُوَ الَّذِي يُعْرَفُ بِالْبَاطِلِ «1»، وَيُعْرَفُ بِالْكِعَابِ وَيُعْرَفُ فِي الْجَاهِلِيَّةِ أَيْضًا بِالْأَرُنْ «2» ويعرف أيضا بالنرد شير. وَفِي صَحِيحِ مُسْلِمٍ عَنْ سُلَيْمَانَ بْنِ بُرَيْدَةَ عَنْ أَبِيهِ عَنِ النَّبِيِّ صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ قال: (من لعب بالنرد شير فَكَأَنَّمَا غَمَسَ يَدَهُ فِي لَحْمِ خِنْزِيرٍ وَدَمِهِ). قَالَ عُلَمَاؤُنَا: وَمَعْنَى هَذَا أَيْ هُوَ كَمَنْ غَمَسَ يَدَهُ فِي لَحْمِ الْخِنْزِيرِ يُهَيِّئُهُ لِأَنْ يَأْكُلَهُ، وَهَذَا الْفِعْلُ فِي الْخِنْزِيرِ حَرَامٌ لَا يَجُوزُ، يُبَيِّنُهُ قَوْلُهُ صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ (مَنْ لَعِبَ بِالنَّرْدِ فَقَدْ عَصَى اللَّهَ وَرَسُولَهُ) رَوَاهُ مَالِكٌ وَغَيْرُهُ مِنْ حَدِيثِ أَبِي مُوسَى الْأَشْعَرِيِّ وَهُوَ حَدِيثٌ صَحِيحٌ، وَهُوَ يُحَرِّمُ اللَّعِبَ بِالنَّرْدِ جُمْلَةً وَاحِدَةً، وَكَذَلِكَ الشِّطْرَنْجُ، لَمْ يَسْتَثْنِ وَقْتًا مِنْ وَقْتٍ وَلَا حَالًا مِنْ حَالٍ، وَأَخْبَرَ أَنَّ فَاعِلَ ذَلِكَ عَاصٍ لِلَّهِ وَرَسُولِهِ، إِلَّا أَنَّهُ يَحْتَمِلُ أَنْ يَكُونَ الْمُرَادُ بِاللَّعِبِ بِالنَّرْدِ الْمَنْهِيِّ عَنْهُ أَنْ يَكُونَ عَلَى وَجْهِ الْقِمَارِ، لِمَا رُوِيَ مِنْ إِجَازَةِ اللَّعِبِ بِالشِّطْرَنْجِ عَنِ التَّابِعِينَ عَلَى غَيْرِ قِمَارٍ. وَحُمِلَ ذَلِكَ عَلَى الْعُمُومِ قِمَارًا وَغَيْرُ قِمَارٍ أَوْلَى وَأَحْوَطُ إِنْ شَاءَ اللَّهُ…..

وَقَالَ أَبُو مُوسَى الْأَشْعَرِيُّ: لَا يلعب بالشطرنج إلا خاطئ. وسيل أَبُو جَعْفَرٍ عَنِ الشِّطْرَنْجِ فَقَالَ: دَعُونَا مِنْ هَذِهِ الْمَجُوسِيَّةِ. وَفِي حَدِيثٍ طَوِيلٍ عَنِ النَّبِيِّ صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ: (وَإِنَّ مَنْ لَعِبَ بِالنَّرْدِ وَالشِّطْرَنْجِ وَالْجَوْزِ وَالْكِعَابِ مَقَتَهُ اللَّهُ وَمَنْ جَلَسَ إِلَى مَنْ يَلْعَبُ بِالنَّرْدِ وَالشِّطْرَنْجِ لِيَنْظُرَ إِلَيْهِمْ مُحِيَتْ عَنْهُ حَسَنَاتُهُ كُلُّهَا وَصَارَ مِمَّنْ مَقَتَهُ اللَّهُ (. وَهَذِهِ الْآثَارُ كُلُّهَا تَدُلُّ عَلَى تَحْرِيمِ اللَّعِبِ بِهَا بِلَا قِمَارٍ، وَاللَّهُ أَعْلَمُ.

 

[12] Shaykh Mufti Muhammad Taqi Usmani, Takmilah Fathul Mulhim, Bāb Tahrīm La’ib bin-Nardasheer, vol 4, pp. 434-435.

 

[13] See Fatawa Mahmoodiyyah, vol 19, p. 538-539, Mufti Ebrahim Desai, Ask Imam, http://askimam.org/public/question_detail/13561 [accessed 15th June 2020]

 

Performing Masah Over Compression Socks

   15th June 2020

      السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: A lady needs to wear (medical) compression socks due to a medical illness, she has to keep them on at all times apart from the night time. If she has performed wudu before wearing them, can she do masah over them?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer:

Thank you for your question. In reference to your query compression stockings are worn to apply pressure to the legs to enable blood circulation from the legs to the heart. They help with swelling, blood clots etc.[1] Based on the information we received, compression socks can be worn and removed as long as they are worn for the most part of the day to help in recovery. Removing them for 5-10 mins during the day for wudhu is not severely detrimental. It is, therefore, necessary to remove them at the time of wudhu as use of water is not harmful to a person wearing compression socks.[2]

 

[Allāh Knows Best]

 

Written by:  Apa Sajeda          Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

     

JKN Fatawa Department

 

[1] https://www.healthline.com/health/compression-socks-benefits#benefits

 

[2] [2] Kasani, Badaa’I as Sanaa’I, kitab at taharah, bab al mash, vol 1, page 13

مَطْلَبُ شَرْطِ جَوَازِ الْمَسْحِ (وَأَمَّا) شَرَائِطُ جَوَازِهِ فَهُوَ أَنْ يَكُونَ الْغَسْلُ مِمَّا يَضُرُّ بِالْعُضْوِ الْمُنْكَسِرِ وَالْجُرْحِ وَالْقُرْحِ، أَوْ لَا يَضُرُّهُ الْغَسْلُ لَكِنَّهُ يُخَافُ الضَّرَرَ مِنْ جِهَةٍ أُخْرَى بِنَزْعِ الْجَبَائِرِ فَإِنْ كَانَ لَا يَضُرُّهُ، وَلَا يُخَافُ لَا يَجُوزُ، وَلَا يَسْقُطُ الْغَسْلُ؛ لِأَنَّ الْمَسْحَ لِمَكَانِ الْعُذْرِ، وَلَا عُذْرَ ثُمَّ إذَا مَسَحَ عَلَى الْجَبَائِرِ، وَالْخِرَقِ الَّتِي فَوْقَ الْجِرَاحَةِ جَازَ لِمَا قُلْنَا

 

Ibn Nujaym, Bahr al Raiq, kitab al Taharah, vol 1, page 195-196

لِأَنَّ الْمَسْحَ عَلَى الْجَبِيرَةِ كَالْغَسْلِ لِمَا تَحْتَهَا وَوَظِيفَةُ هَذَا الْعُضْوِ الْغَسْلُ عِنْدَ الْإِمْكَانِ وَالْمَسْحُ عَلَى الْجَبِيرَةِ عِنْدَ عَدَمِهِ كَالتَّيَمُّمِ

……
وَقَدْ ذَكَرَ الشَّيْخُ أَبُو بَكْرٍ الرَّازِيّ تَفْصِيلًا عَلَى قَوْلِ أَبِي حَنِيفَةَ فَقَالَ إنْ كَانَ مَا تَحْتَ الْجَبِيرَةِ لَوْ ظَهَرَ أَمْكَنَ غَسْلُهُ فَالْمَسْحُ وَاجِبٌ بِالْأَصْلِ لِيَتَعَلَّقَ بِمَا قَامَ مَقَامُهُ كَمَسْحِ الْخُفِّ

 

Writing or Texting a Divorce and then Discarding it without her Knowledge

10th June 2020

Question: If a man wrote on a letter addressing his wife that he has divorced her and thereafter he shredded the paper without the wife knowing anything about it, does the divorce take place Islamically? Similarly, if he wrote divorce on a text then deleted the message before he sent it to her then does that mean she is now divorced?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

In reference to the above case scenario, as a point of principle, the validity of divorce remains contingent on the husband writing the divorces out of his free will and a clear sense of mind. Divorce lies in the hands of the husband and his pronunciation of it makes it legally binding. If he pronounced it willingly without attaching any conditions to it, for instance, he wrote, “I divorce you” or “You are divorced” whilst addressing his wife by her name then the divorce is valid. The jurists state that divorce takes into immediate effect upon writing it regardless if he intended it or not, whether she was aware of it or not as her knowledge of it is not essential or immediately discarded it by deleting the message or shredding the letter.[1] In the advent of the divorce taking into effect, her waiting period begins instantly after writing or texting the divorce.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written and researched by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

 

[1] Fatawa Hindiyyah, Kitāb al-Talāq, vol 1, p. 414

[الْفَصْلُ السَّادِسُ فِي الطَّلَاقِ بِالْكِتَابَةِ]

وَإِنْ كَانَتْ مَرْسُومَةً يَقَعُ الطَّلَاقُ نَوَى أَوْ لَمْ يَنْوِ ثُمَّ الْمَرْسُومَةُ لَا تَخْلُو أَمَّا إنْ أَرْسَلَ الطَّلَاقَ بِأَنْ كَتَبَ أَمَّا بَعْدُ فَأَنْت طَالِقٌ فَكُلَّمَا كَتَبَ هَذَا يَقَعُ الطَّلَاقُ وَتَلْزَمُهَا الْعِدَّةُ مِنْ وَقْتِ الْكِتَابَةِ.

Durrul Mukhtār wa hashiyah Ibn Ābideen Shāmi, Kitāb al-Talāq, vol 4 p. 456

[مطلب في الطلاق بالكتابة]

وإن كانت مرسومة يقع الطلاق نوى أو لم ينو ثم المرسومة لا تخلو إما أن أرسل الطلاق بأن كتب: أما بعد فأنت طالق، فكما كتب هذا يقع الطلاق وتلزمها العدة من وقت الكتابة.

Fatawa Tatarkhaniyyah, Kitāb al-Talāq, Bāb Iyqa Talaq, vol 3, p. 377

Fatawa Mahmoodiyyah, Kitāb al-Talāq. Bāb Talaq bil-Kitabat, vol 12, p. 658-660

Fatawa Diyniyyah, , Kitāb al-Talāq, vol 3, p. 419

Men Wearing Ring other than Silver

9th June 2020

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: Are men allowed to wear rings other than silver eg. metal or steel, if not is their namaz accepted whilst wearing such a ring, and is there any punishment for doing so?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

In reference to your query, it is prohibited[1] for a man to wear a ring[2] made of any material besides silver. The prophet sallalahu alaihi wa sallam has very sternly forbade the wearing of gold,[3] and other metal rings for men.

A person’s salah whilst wearing such a ring would be valid as the item itself is pure, but the sin of wearing the ring would still be upon him.

 

[Allāh Knows Best]

 

Written by:  Maulana Anas Mullah        Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

[1] Fatawa Hindiyya, kitab al hadhr wal ibaahah, bab fil lubs, vol 5, p 335

وَالتَّخَتُّمُ بِالذَّهَبِ حَرَامٌ فِي الصَّحِيحِ، كَذَا فِي الْوَجِيزِ لِلْكَرْدَرِيِّ.

[2] Ibn Nujaym, Al Bahr al raaiq, Kitaab al karahiya, fasl fil lubs, vol 8, p 217

قَالَ – رَحِمَهُ اللَّهُ – (وَلَا يَتَحَلَّى الرَّجُلُ بِالذَّهَبِ وَالْفِضَّةِ إلَّا بِالْخَاتَمِ وَالْمِنْطَقَةِ، وَحِلْيَةُ السَّيْفِ مِنْ الْفِضَّةِ) رَوَيْنَا، غَيْرَ أَنَّ الْخَاتَمَ وَمَا ذَكَرَ مُسْتَثْنًى تَحْقِيقًا لِمَعْنَى النَّمُوذَجِ وَالْفِضَّةِ؛ لِأَنَّهُمَا مِنْ جِنْسٍ وَاحِدٍ

[3] Shaami, Raddul Muhtaar, Kitabul hadhr wal ibaahah, bab al lubs vol 6, p 359

وَلَا يَتَخَتَّمُ) إلَّا بِالْفِضَّةِ لِحُصُولِ الِاسْتِغْنَاءِ بِهَا فَيَحْرُمُ (بِغَيْرِهَا كَحَجَرٍ) وَصَحَّحَ السَّرَخْسِيُّ

 

Fiqh of Fasting – PT2 The Throat

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The Fiqh of Fasting – PT1 The Cavity

Download the Full Article – Fiqh of Fasting – PT1 The Cavity

Does Stimulation and Orgasm Necessitate Ghusl and Break the Fast?

2nd June 2020

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: What is the ruling for a woman who reaches a climax (orgasms but no ejaculation) due to clitoral stimulation (from her husband) through fore playing, hugging, fondling etc without actual intercourse.

  1. Is ghusl necessary?
  2. Will her fast be invalidated.
  3. If so, is kaffarah necessary? or qadha sufficient. Kindly provide a detailed response.

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer:

In reference to your query, please note that there are a few stages which lead to orgasm.

1- Arousal- Feeling sexual pleasure and excitement due to sexual activity such as clitoral stimulation and an erection in the case with men.

2- Plateau- This is when the orgasm ascends, and the body prepares for the orgasm.

4- Orgasm- An orgasm is a feeling of intense pleasure felt due to sexual activity. It is an intensely pleasurable release of sexual tension accompanied with contractions of the genital muscles. Some women and most men will ejaculate during an orgasm. After an orgasm, there will be a refractory period where a person will not be able to have another orgasm.

5- Ejaculation- Release of seminal fluid. [1]

In order to understand the ruling of each stage, the following terms for fluid discharged during foreplay or sexual intercourse must be noted.

  1. Madhi -pre-seminal fluid – which is a thin white fluid, or a thin clear odourless fluid. This breaks wudhu but does not render ghusl as wajib (compulsory).
  2. Mani -seminal ejaculation- this is thick white fluid for men. For women, it is a yellow thin fluid as mentioned in the hadeeth. [2] This makes ghusl wajib

It must be noted that there is no difference in the rulings in whichever manner sexual pleasure is experienced followed by seminal ejaculation whether during wakefulness or sleep; whether through foreplay, masturbation, sexual thoughts or a wet dream. [3]

Regarding the rulings, sexual excitement is attained either due to foreplay etc or actual sexual relationship with penetration. The rulings vary in both scenarios and depend on whether ejaculation took place or not. We begin with the injunction of the former i.e. stimulation through foreplay etc first. The stages of arousal and plateau through stimulation does not in principle break the fast nor renders ghusl wajib but necessitates wudhu if madhi was discharged. During the stage of arousal, clitoral stimulation may take place and this is when the clitoris (part of a woman’s private parts) is touched for sexual pleasure. Clitoral stimulation in itself does not break wudhu nor the fast. A woman deriving pleasure from clitoral stimulation is more or less the same as a man having an erection during sexual pleasure. Just as an erection in itself without any fluid discharge does not break wudhu nor the fast and nor makes ghusl wajib then likewise, clitoral stimulation does not necessitate ghusl, wudhu nor breaks her fast. If she discharges madhi (white or clear pre-seminal fluid) then just wudhu is necessary. Like stimulation, the stage of orgasm that follows through foreplay without seminal ejaculation in itself does not make ghusl compulsory nor does it invalidate the fast.[4] When the Quran mentions the ruling of ghusl, it says that do ghusl if you are in the state of janabat. Janabat, as the scholars explain, is the state of seminal ejaculate (inzaal) with pleasure (ladhat & shawat). This explains both seminal ejaculation and pleasure are conditional for ghusl to become wajib.[5] Hence if there is a mere pleasure but no ejaculation then ghusl does not apply. Although orgasm is a sign of a person’s desires being fulfilled, mere fulfilment of desire without ejaculation does not make ghusl necessary and nor is that fast broken because the condition of ejaculation (inzaal) is not present.

The Hanafi jurists cite a particular but relevant ruling that if a woman has a wet dream and during the dream, she felt her desires being fulfilled and experiences the same pleasure of sexual climax (like orgasm) but did not ejaculate then she will not have to do ghusl. This demonstrates that sexual climax and orgasm without ejaculation does not make ghusl necessary (nor breaks the fast as mentioned above).[6] Fatawa Mahmoodia also discusses that if during foreplay a woman’s body is filled with sexual excitement and reaches orgasm but does not ejaculate seminal fluid then ghusl is not compulsory on her. Also, it has been mentioned that if a man fulfils his desire by rubbing his penis on to his thigh but does not ejaculate seminal fluid then ghusl is not wajib on him. Again, this shows that fulfilling one’s desire to its peak without ejaculation does not render ghusl wajib.[7]

So to summarise, the following scenarios and rulings regarding clitoris stimulation or orgasm with women without real sexual intercourse are,

  • Stimulation without any discharge of madhi (pre-seminal fluid) or mani (seminal fluid – yellowish discharge) does not break wudhu, fast and nor ghusl become wajib.
  • Stimulation or orgasm with a discharge of madhi only but no ejaculation of seminal fluid i.e. mani. In this case, wudhu will break but it does not necessitate ghusl nor does it break the fast.[8]
  • Stimulation or orgasm with the discharge of mani makes ghusl necessary and also breaks the fast but only qadha and not kaffarah.[9]
  • Reaching sexual climax with the discharge of fluid however one is not sure if this fluid is mani or madhi then ghusl will be wajib as a precaution, the fast will break and just qadha becomes necessary.[10]

So to conclude, the situation mentioned in your question about clitoris stimulation or orgasm without seminal ejaculation does not make ghusl wajib, nor does it break the fast.

The above discussion was in reference to sexual pleasure without actual intercourse. If actual intercourse did take place then mere penetration in either of the two passages necessitates ghusl and breaks the fast regardless if there was seminal ejaculation or not or whether sexual stimulation and orgasm did exist or not. According to a prophetic Hadeeth, just the meeting of the two private parts with penetration necessitates ghusl. Likewise, the fast breaks and both qadha and kaffarah become necessary.[11]

 

[Allāh Knows Best]

 

Written by:  Apa Sajeda          Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam      

JKN Fatawa Department

 

 

[1] See the links for more details.

https://www.nhs.uk/common-health-questions/sexual-health/what-is-an-orgasm/

https://www.medicalnewstoday.com/articles/232318

https://www.everydayhealth.com/sexual-health/the-male-orgasm.aspx

 

[2] Mishkat al-Masabeeh, Kitab Altahara, Bab Alghusl, Pg 48

….. ماء الرجل غليظ ابيض و ماء المرأة رقيق اصفر

 

Ibn Abideen, Raddul Muhtar, Kitab Taharah, Baab ghusl, Vol 1, p. 151

وَفُرِضَ) الْغُسْلُ (عِنْدَ) خُرُوجِ (مَنِيٍّ) مِنْ الْعُضْوِ وَإِلَّا فَلَا يُفْرَضُ اتِّفَاقًا؛ لِأَنَّهُ فِي حُكْمِ الْبَاطِنِ (مُنْفَصِلٍ عَنْ مَقَرِّهِ) هُوَ صُلْبُ الرَّجُلِ وَتَرَائِبُ الْمَرْأَةِ، وَمَنِيُّهُ أَبْيَضُ وَمَنِيُّهَا أَصْفَرُ،

 

[3] Fatawa Hindiyya, Kitab Altaharah, Vol 1, pg. 17

لْفَصْلُ الثَّالِثُ فِي الْمَعَانِي الْمُوجِبَةِ لِلْغُسْلِ وَهِيَ ثَلَاثَةٌ) مِنْهَا الْجَنَابَةُ وَهِيَ تَثْبُتُ بِسَبَبَيْنِ أَحَدُهُمَا خُرُوجُ الْمَنِيِّ عَلَى وَجْهِ الدَّفْقِ وَالشَّهْوَةِ مِنْ غَيْرِ إيلَاجٍ بِاللَّمْسِ أَوْ النَّظَرِ أَوْ الِاحْتِلَامِ أَوْ الِاسْتِمْنَاءِ مِنْ الرَّجُلِ وَالْمَرْأَةِ فِي النَّوْمِ وَالْيَقَظَةِ

 

[4] Ibn Nujaym, Bahr Alraiq, Kitaab Altahara, Vol 1, p. 106

خُرُوجَ مَنِيِّهَا إلَى فَرْجِهَا الْخَارِجِ شَرْطٌ لِوُجُوبِ الْغُسْلِ عَلَيْهَا، وَعَلَيْهِ الْفَتْوَى كَذَا فِي مِعْرَاجِ الدِّرَايَةِ

 

Ibn Abideen, Raddul Muhtar, Kitab Sawm, Vol 2, p. 398

 (أو جامع فيما دون الفرج ولم ينزل)

يعني في غير السبيلين

(قوله: ولم ينزل) .

أما لو أنزل قضى فقط كما سيذكره المصنف أي بلا كفارة قال في الفتح وعمل المرأتين كعمل الرجال جماع أيضا فيما دون الفرج لا قضاء على واحدة منهما إلا إذا أنزلت ولا كفارة مع الإنزال. اهـ. (قوله: يعني في غير السبيلين) أشار لما في الفتح حيث قال أراد بالفرج كلا من القبل والدبر، فما دونه حينئذ التفخيذ والتبطين اهـ أي؛ لأن الفرج لا يشمل الدبر لغة وإن شمله حكما قال في المغرب الفرج قبل الرجل والمرأة باتفاق أهل اللغة ثم قال وقوله القبل والدبر كلاهما فرج يعني في الحكم.

 

Ibn Nujaym, Bahr Al-Rraiq, Kitaab Altahara, Vol 1, p. 81

أَنَّ الْوُضُوءَ يَجِبُ عَلَى الْمَرْأَةِ مِنْ الْمُبَاشَرَةِ أَيْضًا قَالَ وَلَمْ أَقِفْ عَلَيْهِ إلَّا فِي الْقُنْيَةِ، وَفِيهِ تَأَمُّلٌ، فَإِنَّهُمْ لَمْ يَذْكُرُوا فِي مُبَاشَرَةِ الرَّجُلِ لِلْمَرْأَةِ عَلَى قَوْلِهِمَا إلَّا عَلَى الرَّجُلِ اهـ.
وَقَدْ يُقَالُ لَا حَاجَةَ إلَى التَّنْصِيصِ عَلَى الْحُكْمِ فِي الْمَرْأَةِ، فَإِنَّ مِنْ الْمَعْلُومِ أَنَّ كُلَّ حُكْمٍ ثَبَتَ لِلرِّجَالِ ثَبَتَ لِلنِّسَاءِ؛ لِأَنَّهُنَّ شَقَائِقُ الرِّجَالِ إلَّا مَا نُصَّ عَلَيْهِ قَالَ فِي الْمُسْتَصْفَى الْأَصْلُ فِي النِّسَاءِ أَنْ لَا يُذْكَرْنَ؛ لِأَنَّ مَبْنَى حَالِهِنَّ عَلَى السَّتْرِ؛ وَلِهَذَا لَمْ يُذْكَرْنَ فِي الْقُرْآنِ حَتَّى شَكَوْنَ فَنَزَلَ قَوْله تَعَالَى {إِنَّ الْمُسْلِمِينَ وَالْمُسْلِمَاتِ} [الأحزاب: ٣٥] إلَّا إذَا كَانَ الْحُكْمُ مَخْصُوصًا بِهِنَّ كَمَسْأَلَةِ الصَّغِيرَةِ الْآتِيَةِ فِي الْغُسْلِ.

 

[5] Inayah, Kitab Taharah, Vol 1, Pg. 61

وَلَنَا أَنَّ الْأَمْرَ بِالتَّطْهِيرِ يَتَنَاوَلُ الْجُنُبَ لِقَوْلِهِ تَعَالَى {وَإِنْ كُنْتُمْ جُنُبًا فَاطَّهَّرُوا} [المائدة: ٦] وَالْجُنُبُ فِي اللُّغَةِ مَنْ خَرَجَ مِنْهُ الْمَنِيُّ عَلَى وَجْهِ الشَّهْوَةِ، يُقَالُ أَجْنَبَ الرَّجُلُ: إذَا قَضَى شَهْوَتَهُ مِنْ الْمَرْأَةِ، فَالْأَمْرُ بِالتَّطْهِيرِ يَتَنَاوَلُ مَنْ خَرَجَ مِنْهُ الْمَنِيُّ عَلَى وَجْهِ الشَّهْوَةِ، وَغَيْرُهُ لَيْسَ فِي مَعْنَاهُ فَلَا يُقَاسُ عَلَيْهِ وَلَا يَلْحَقُ بِهِ

 

Inayah, Kitab Taharah, Vol 1, Pg. 60

قَالَ (وَالْمَعَانِي الْمُوجِبَةُ لِلْغُسْلِ إنْزَالُ الْمَنِيِّ عَلَى وَجْهِ الدَّفْقِ وَالشَّهْوَةِ مِنْ الرَّجُلِ وَالْمَرْأَةِ حَالَةَ النَّوْمِ وَالْيَقِظَةِ)

 

Imam Qurtubi, Tafseer Qurtubi

ورجل جُنُب: غريب. والجنابة مخالطة الرّجل المرأة. التاسعة ـ والجمهور من الأُمّة على أن الجُنُب هو غير الطاهر من إنزال أو مجاوزة خِتانٍ. وروِي عن بعض الصحابة ألاّ غسل إلاّ من إنزال لقوله عليه السلام: ” إنما الماء من الماء ” أخرجه مسلم.

Tafseer Jalalyn

{ وَلاَ جُنُباً } بإيلاج أو إنزال ونصبه على الحال وهو يطلق على المفرد وغيره

 

[6] Fathul Qadeer, Kitaab Altaharah, Vol 1 pg. 62

وَلَوْ احْتَلَمَتْ وَوَجَدَتْ لَذَّةَ الْإِنْزَالِ لَكِنْ لَمْ يَخْرُجْ مَاؤُهَا إلَى فَرْجِهَا الظَّاهِرِ لَا غُسْلَ عَلَيْهَا فِي ظَاهِرِ الرِّوَايَةِ. قَالَ الْحَلْوَانِيُّ: وَبِهِ يُؤْخَذُ

وَلَوْ تَذَكَّرَ الِاحْتِلَامَ وَالشَّهْوَةَ وَلَمْ يَرَ بَلَلًا لَا يَجِبُ اتِّفَاقًا،…..

Fatawa hindiyya, Kitab al Tahara, Vol 1, Pg 17

وَلَوْ تَذَكَّرَ الِاحْتِلَامَ وَلَذَّةَ الْإِنْزَالِ وَلَمْ يَرَ بَلَلًا لَا يَجِبُ عَلَيْهِ الْغُسْلُ وَالْمَرْأَةُ كَذَلِكَ فِي ظَاهِرِ الرِّوَايَةِ؛ لِأَنَّ خُرُوجَ مَنِيِّهَا إلَى فَرْجِهَا الْخَارِجِ شَرْطٌ لِوُجُوبِ الْغُسْلِ عَلَيْهَا وَعَلَيْهِ الْفَتْوَى. هَكَذَا فِي مِعْرَاجِ الدِّرَايَةِ

 

[7] Mufti Ganghohi, Fatawa Mahmodiya, Kitab Altahara, Vol 8, pg. 151– 152

اگر ععورت مرد سے لپٹی چمٹی ہے پھر جوش چڑھتا ہے بغیر دخول طبیعت بھڑ جاتی ہے اور خواہش جاتی رہتی ہے لیکن منی نہیں نکلتی نظر آتی ہے ۔۔۔۔۔۔۔؟     جواب: غسل واجب نہیں ہوگا۔

۔۔۔۔۔۔ اپنے زانوؤں سے ذکر کو رگڑ کر شہوت زائل کرتا ہے لیکن منی کا خروج نہیں کرتا۔۔۔۔۔ جواب: غسل واجب نہیں ہوگا۔

 

[8] Jawharatun Niyarah Kitab Al-Sawm, vol, p.139

قَوْلُهُ فَإِنْ أَنْزَلَ بِقُبْلَةٍ أَوْ لَمْسٍ فَعَلَيْهِ الْقَضَاءُ دُونَ الْكَفَّارَةِ) لِوُجُودِ مَعْنَى الْجِمَاعِ وَهُوَ الْإِنْزَالُ عَنْ شَهْوَةٍ بِالْمُبَاشَرَةِ وَأَمَّا الْكَفَّارَةُ فَتَفْتَقِرُ إلَى كَمَالِ الْجِنَايَةِ لِأَنَّهَا عُقُوبَةٌ فَلَا يُعَاقَبُ بِهَا إلَّا بَعْدَ بُلُوغِ الْجِنَايَةِ نِهَايَتَهَا وَلَمْ تَبْلُغْ نِهَايَتَهَا لِأَنَّ نِهَايَتَهَا الْجِمَاعُ فِي الْفَرْجِ وَإِنْ لَمَسَ مِنْ وَرَاءِ حَائِلٍ إنْ وَجَدَ حَرَارَةَ الْبَدَنِ وَأَنْزَلَ أَفْطَرَ وَإِنْ لَمْ يَجِدْ حَرَارَةَ الْبَدَنِ لَا يُفْطِرُ وَإِنْ أَنْزَلَ إذَا كَانَ الْحَائِلُ ضَعِيفًا وَعَلَى هَذَا حُرْمَةُ الْمُصَاهَرَةِ وَلَوْ قَبَّلَتْ الصَّائِمَةُ زَوْجَهَا فَأَنْزَلَتْ أَفْطَرَتْ وَكَذَا إذَا أَنْزَلَ هُوَ وَإِنْ أَمَذَى أَوْ أَمَذَتْ لَا يَفْسُدُ الصَّوْمُ

 

Jawharatun Niyarah Kitab Al-Sawm, vol, p.138

(قَوْلُهُ فَإِنْ نَامَ فَاحْتَلَمَ لَمْ يُفْطِرْ) لِقَوْلِهِ – عَلَيْهِ الصَّلَاةُ وَالسَّلَامُ – «ثَلَاثٌ لَا يُفْطِرْنَ الصَّائِمَ الْقَيْءُ وَالْحِجَامَةُ وَالِاحْتِلَامُ» وَلِأَنَّهُ لَمْ يُوجَدْ صُورَةُ الْجِمَاعِ وَلَا مَعْنَاهُ وَهُوَ الْإِنْزَالُ عَنْ شَهْوَةٍ بِالْمُبَاشَرَةِ

https://www.issm.info/sexual-health-qa/do-women-ejaculate/

https://www.mcgill.ca/oss/article/health-history/can-women-ejaculate-depends-who-you-ask

 

[9] Marghinani, Hidaya, Kitab Alsawm, Baab ma yufsidu alsawm, Vol1, p. 12

ولأنه لم توجد صورة الجماع ولا معناه وهو الإنزال عن شهوة بالمباشرة “

…ولو أنزل بقبلة أو لمس فعليه القضاء دون الكفارة ” لوجود معنى الجماع ووجود المنافي صورة أو معنى يكفي لإيجاب القضاء احتياطا، أما الكفارة فتفتقر إلى كمال الجناية لأنها تندرئ بالشبهات كالحدود

 

Kasani, Bada’ia Sana’ia, Kitab Alsawm, Vol 2, p. 93

وَلَوْ جَامَعَ امْرَأَتَهُ فِيمَا دُونَ الْفَرْجِ فَأَنْزَلَ أَوْ بَاشَرَهَا أَوْ قَبَّلَهَا أَوْ لَمَسَهَا بِشَهْوَةٍ فَأَنْزَلَ يَفْسُدُ صَوْمَهُ، وَعَلَيْهِ الْقَضَاءُ وَلَا كَفَّارَةَ عَلَيْهِ.

وَكَذَا إذَا فَعَلَ ذَلِكَ فَأَنْزَلَتْ الْمَرْأَةُ لِوُجُودِ الْجِمَاعِ مِنْ حَيْثُ الْمَعْنَى وَهُوَ قَضَاءُ الشَّهْوَةِ بِفِعْلِهِ وَهُوَ الْمَسُّ بِخِلَافِ النَّظَرِ فَإِنَّهُ لَيْسَ بِجِمَاعٍ أَصْلًا

 

[10] Fatawa hindiyya, Kitab al Tahara, Vol 1, Pg. 17

شَكَّ أَنَّهُ مَنِيٌّ أَوْ مَذْيٌ فَعَلَيْهِ الْغُسْلُ

[11] Inayah, Kitab Taharah, Vol 1, Pg. 62

(وَالْتِقَاءُ الْخِتَانَيْنِ مِنْ غَيْرِ إنْزَالٍ) لِقَوْلِهِ – عَلَيْهِ الصَّلَاةُ وَالسَّلَامُ – «إذَا الْتَقَى الْخِتَانَانِ وَتَوَارَتْ الْحَشَفَةُ وَجَبَ الْغُسْلُ، أَنْزَلَ أَوْ لَمْ يُنْزِلْ» وَلِأَنَّهُ سَبَبُ الْإِنْزَالِ وَنَفْسُهُ يَتَغَيَّبُ عَنْ بَصَرِهِ وَقَدْ يَخْفَى عَلَيْهِ لِقِلَّتِهِ فَيُقَامُ مَقَامَهُ،