Finance

11^th October 2022

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question:  Can I buy a family of kittens and their mother online and pay for them? Is this Haram.

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer: Thank for your query. It is generally permissible to buy and sell kittens and cats just like other goods are purchased online. The sale of cats and kittens has been permitted because they serve many benefits such as hunting mice or other harmful rodents and insects. Moreover, they are generally not harmful animals either and can be easily domesticated. For this reason, the ownership of a kitten is a source of benefit to its owner and the seller is allowed to benefit from the money gained via such sale.[1]

A final note on this is that if cats or any other halal pets are sold online then it is necessary to ensure all safety measures are met when delivered to their new owners, so they don’t suffer any harm.

[Allāh Knows Best]

Written by:  Mufti Anas Mullah        Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam  

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] Al Bahr al Raaiq, Kitaabul Buyoo, Bab as Salam,

ويجوز بيع الهرة لأنها تصطاد الفأرة والهوام المؤذية فهي منتفع بها ولا يجوز بيع هوام الأرض كالخنافس والعقارب والفأرة والنمل والوزغ والقنافذ والضب ولا هوام البحر كالضفدع والسرطان

Raddul Muhtaar, Kitab al Buyoo’, Bab al bay’ al faasid, Matlabun fi bay’I doodatil qurmuz, volume 5, p68

ويجوز بيع البازي والشاهين والصقر وأمثالها والهرة، ويضمن متلفها، لا بيع الحدأة والرخمة وأمثالهما ويجوز بيع ريشها، اهـ لكن في الخانية
بيع الكلب المعلم عندنا جائز، وكذا السنور، وسباع الوحش والطير جائز معلما أو غير معلم، وبيع الفيل جائز

Fatawa Hindiyya, Kitaabul Buyoo, vol 3, p114

ويجوز بيع جميع الحيوانات سوى الخنزير وهو المختار كذا في جواهر الأخلاطي

3rd November 2021

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: If an owner of an asset like a car (or a property) wants to gift his or her car and the offer is verbally made by the donor in front of a third person but the person for whom the gift is intended was not present. Furthermore, when the offer was verbally made in the absence of intended giftee he was already in possession of owner’s car keys for safekeeping. Is the original owner permitted to revoke his offer he made in the intended giftee‘s absence who is unaware of it and tell that person to give the owner his car keys which he was keeping for safety purposes so that car remains his as it was always before or is he obligated to convey his previous intention and verbal offer of gift?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer: In reference to your query, if the owner made a verbal gift of the car to a person in their absence and the intended person was not made aware of it at the time but the owner thereafter retracted from his statement and decided to keep the car instead of gifting it then this will be allowed as the conditions of gift have not been fulfilled. The conditions are both verbal acceptance and physical possession. The intended recipient who had the keys at the time kept them for safekeeping only, not as a way of ownership. Moreover, he did not indicate to any signs of acceptance since he was not aware of it at the time. The gift would have only been valid if after being made aware of it, he accepted the gift. [1]  Retracting from it thereafter would not have been valid. The owner can therefore revoke their verbal offer and reclaim the car keys from the trusted person.[2]

[Allāh Knows Best]

Written by:  Mufti Anas Mullah        Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] Fatawa Hindiyyah, Kitāb al-Hibā, vol 4, p. 378

استودع أخاه عبدا أو ثوبا أو متاعا أو دارا أو دابة، ثم قال: وهبت لك وديعتي وهي في يد المودع يجوز إذا قال: قبلت، ولو وهب عبدا لأخيه وقبضه في المجلس أو بعده بأمره بالقبض نصا صح فشرط القبول في الأول دون الثاني، كذا في القنية.

[2] Durrul Mukhtār wa hashiyah Ibn Ābideen Shāmi, Kitāb al-Hibā, vol 5 p. 694

(وملك) بالقبول (بلا قبض جديد لو الموهوب في يد الموهوب له) ولو بغصب أو أمانة؛ لأنه حينئذ عامل لنفسه، والأصل أن القبضين إذا تجانسا ناب أحدهما عن الآخر، وإذا تغايرا ناب الأعلى عن الأدنى لا عكسه
وهذا معنى قوله بعد لأنه حينئذ عامل لنفسه أي حين قبل صريحا (قوله بلا قبض) أي بأن يرجع إلى الموضع الذي فيه العين ويمضي وقت يتمكن فيه من قبضها قهستاني (قوله ولو بغصب) انظر الزيلعي (قوله عن الآخر) كما إذا كان عنده وديعة فأعارها صاحبها له فإن كلا منهما قبض أمانة فناب أحدهما عن الآخر (قوله عن الأدنى) فناب قبض المغصوب والمبيع فاسدا عن قبض المبيع الصحيح، ولا ينوب قبض الأمانة عنه منح (قوله لا عكسه) فقبض الوديعة مع قبض الهبة يتجانسان لأنهما قبض أمانة ومع قبض الشراء يتغايران لأنه قبض ضمان فلا ينوب الأول عنه كما في المحيط، ومثله في شرح الطحاوي، لكنه ليس على إطلاقه فإنه إذا كان مضمونا بغيره كالبيع المضمون بالثمن والمرهون المضمون بالدين لا ينوب قبضه عن القبض الواجب كما في المستصفى، ومثله في الزاهدي، فلو باع من المودع احتاج إلى قبض جديد، وتمامه في العمادي قهستاني

6th September 2021

Question: Im an accountant by profession and I prepare company accounts and calculate the right amount of tax to be paid to the government. My question is If I prepare company accounts for a Pub, is it permissible for me to prepare their accounts and get paid for the service (tax calculation)? As an accountant, the work carried for this service is the same for other companies as well. They will send me the bank statements and I will prepare the accounts.

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer: It is worth noting that any income whether Halāl or Harām is based on the service you provide. Provided that the service you give is permissible then you do not become responsible for the action of the customer so long as your intention is not to assist in the sin itself. The prohibition lies only if the service itself is unlawful and the intention is for unlawful purposes also. As an accountant you provide the same service for every company whether Halāl or a Harām namely preparing their accounts by checking their bank statements. Your income is determined by your services thus it is permissible. Even if they pay you from the income generated by selling alcohol then that will not be considered Harām for you to take. This is because alcohol is permissible in the religion and their sale of alcohol amongst them is similar to Muslims selling vinegar amongst ourselves. In other words, what we deem Halāl dealing amongst ourselves is similar for them in their religion. If our tradition allows non-Muslims to transact in alcohol between themselves in an Islamic state then as Muslims living in non-Muslim countries, we are not responsible for their actions. What they deem Halāl in their religion then their income will not be Harām for Muslims to take if they pay you from it in return of a Halāl service you provided for them.[1] Another noteworthy point here that supposedly someone argues that it is not allowed for you to take money from a pub owner for preparing their accounts then if majority of your income is lawful because of preparing accounts for other lawful companies then this still does not render your entire income unlawful.[2] The reason is that this is now subsumed with your other lawful income. Either way, as mentioned that your income will not be unlawful.

 [Allãh Knows Best]

Written and researched by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] Bahr Raiq Kitabūl Bai’, p. 288 vol 6

[بَابُ مَسَائِلُ مُتَفَرِّقَةٌ فِي الْبَيْع]

(بَابُ الْمُتَفَرِّقَاتِ)

قَوْلُهُ (وَالذِّمِّيُّ كَالْمُسْلِمِ فِي بَيْعِ غَيْرِ الْخَمْرِ وَالْخِنْزِيرِ) لِأَنَّهُ مُكَلَّفٌ مُحْتَاجٌ فَشَرَعَ فِي حَقِّهِمْ أَسْبَابَ الْمُعَامَلَاتِ فَكُلُّ مَا جَازَ لَنَا مِنْ الْبِيَاعَاتِ مِنْ الصَّرْفِ وَالسَّلَمِ وَغَيْرِهِمَا جَازَ لَهُ وَمَا لَا يَجُوزُ مِنْ الرِّبَا وَغَيْرِهِ لَا يَجُوزُ لَهُ إلَّا الْخَمْرَ وَالْخِنْزِيرَ فَإِنَّ عَقْدَهُمْ فِيهَا كَعَقْدِنَا عَلَى الْعَصِيرِ وَالشَّاةِ فَيَجُوزُ لَهُ السَّلَمُ فِي الْخَمْرِ دُونَ الْخِنْزِيرِ، وَفِي الْبَدَائِعِ لَا يُمْنَعُونَ مِنْ بَيْعِ الْخَمْرِ وَالْخِنْزِيرِ، أَمَّا عَلَى قَوْلِ بَعْضِ مَشَايِخِنَا فَلِأَنَّهُ مُبَاحُ الِانْتِفَاعِ بِهِ شَرْعًا لَهُمْ فَكَانَ مَالًا فِي حَقِّهِمْ عَنْ الْبَعْضِ حُرْمَتُهُمَا ثَابِتَةٌ عَلَى الْعُمُومِ فِي حَقِّ الْمُسْلِمِ وَالْكَافِرِ لِأَنَّ الْكُفَّارَ مُخَاطَبُونَ بِشَرَائِعَ هِيَ مُحَرَّمَاتٌ وَهُوَ الصَّحِيحُ مِنْ مَذْهَبِ أَصْحَابِنَا فَكَانَتْ الْحُرْمَةُ ثَابِتَةً فِي حَقِّهِمْ لَكِنَّهُمْ لَا يُمْنَعُونَ عَنْ بَيْعِهَا لِأَنَّهُمْ لَا يَعْتَقِدُونَ حُرْمَتَهَا ويتمولونها، وَقَدْ أُمِرْنَا بِتَرْكِهِمْ وَمَا يَدِينُونَ.

Durrul Mukhtar wa Raddul Muhtar Kitabūl Buyoo’, p. 480 vol 7

بَابُ الْمُتَفَرِّقَاتِ

(وَالذِّمِّيُّ كَالْمُسْلِمِ فِي بَيْعٍ) كَصَرْفٍ وَسَلَمٍ وَرِبًا وَغَيْرِهَا (غَيْرِ الْخَمْرِ وَالْخِنْزِيرِ وَمَيْتَةٍ لَمْ تَمُتْ حَتْفَ أَنْفِهَا)

(قَوْلُهُ غَيْرِ الْخَمْرِ وَالْخِنْزِيرِ إلَخْ) فَإِنَّا نُجِيزُ بَيْعَ بَعْضِهِمْ بَعْضًا لِخُصُوصٍ فِيهِ مِنْ قَوْلِ عُمَرَ – رَضِيَ اللَّهُ تَعَالَى عَنْهُ – أَخْرَجَهُ أَبُو يُوسُفَ فِي كِتَابِ الْخَرَاجِ حَضَرَ عُمَرُ بْنُ الْخَطَّابِ، وَاجْتَمَعَ إلَيْهِ عُمَّالُهُ فَقَالَ يَا هَؤُلَاءِ إنَّهُ بَلَغَنِي أَنَّكُمْ تَأْخُذُونَ فِي الْجِزْيَةِ الْمَيْتَةَ وَالْخِنْزِيرَ وَالْخَمْرَ فَقَالَ بِلَالٌ: أَجَلْ إنَّهُمْ يَفْعَلُونَ ذَلِكَ فَقَالَ فَلَا تَفْعَلُوا، وَلَكِنْ وَلُّوا أَرْبَابَهَا بَيْعَهَا ثُمَّ خُذُوا الثَّمَنَ مِنْهُمْ وَلَا نُجِيزُ فِيمَا بَيْنَهُمْ بَيْعَ الْمَيْتَةِ وَالدَّمِ فَتْحٌ

[2] Durrul Mukhtar wa Raddul Muhtar Kitāb az-Zakāt, bāb Zakāt al-Ghanam, p. 217 vol 3

(وَلَوْ خَلَطَ السُّلْطَانُ الْمَالَ الْمَغْصُوبَ بِمَالِهِ مَلَكَهُ فَتَجِبُ الزَّكَاةُ فِيهِ وَيُورَثُ عَنْهُ) ؛ لِأَنَّ الْخَلْطَ اسْتِهْلَاكٌ إذَا لَمْ يُمْكِنْ تَمْيِيزٌ عِنْدَ أَبِي حَنِيفَةَ، وَقَوْلُهُ أَرْفَقُ إذْ قَلَّمَا يَخْلُو مَالٌ عَنْ غَصْبٍ،

Fatawa Hindiyyah Kitāb al-Karahiyyat, bāb al-Bai alItiyām, p. 444 vol 5

وَالثَّانِي إنْ عَلِمَ أَنَّ الْمَالَ الْحَرَامَ بِعَيْنِهِ قَائِمٌ إلَّا أَنَّهُ اخْتَلَطَ بِالْغَيْرِ بِحَيْثُ لَا يُمْكِنُ التَّمْيِيزُ عَنْهُ فَإِنَّ عَلَى أَصْلِ أَبِي حَنِيفَةَ – رَحِمَهُ اللَّهُ تَعَالَى – بِالْخَلْطِ يَدْخُلُ فِي مِلْكِهِ إلَّا أَنَّهُ لَا يَنْبَغِي أَنْ يَشْتَرِيَ مِنْهُ حَتَّى يَرْضَى الْخَصْمُ بِدَفْعِ الْعِوَضِ فَإِنْ اشْتَرَاهُ يَدْخُلُ  فِي مِلْكِهِ مَعَ الْكَرَاهَةِ

1st September 2021

Question: I wanted to ask if working in an Amazon warehouse would be permissible as I could be potentially sorting and packing deliveries that have Harām items in them.

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

In reference to your query, working in an Amazon warehouse sorting out packages of both Halāl and Harām does not render your income Harām. This is based on a similitude case where Imām Abu Hanīfah rahimahullah permitted a Muslim to charge remuneration from a dhimmi (non-Muslim residing in a Muslim country governed by Islamic law) to carry his alcohol for him. He argued that the burden of sin is connected with the drinker due to his own actions. The act of carrying alcohol itself is not the cause of the sin because his job is providing a service. Contrarily, his two eminent students; Imām Abu Yusuf rahimahullah and Imām Muhammad rahimahullah disproved of charging remuneration of carrying alcohol due to the explicit Hadīth where the Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam cursed ten things related to alcohol amongst them being its carrier. Imām Abu Hanīfah rahimahullah explains that the curse applies to the individual carrying it with the intention of committing a sin. The carrier in this case is merely charging for his services. Moreover, it is possible that the owner may use it for reasons other than drinking i.e. converting to vinegar etc.[1]

Imām Abu Hanīfah’s rahimahullah underlying rationale was that the transaction should be based on the service one is providing. If the service itself is Halāl then his income cannot be rendered unlawful altogether. He doesn’t share in the burden of the owner’s discretionary sinful act as it was his choice to engage in Harām. The Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam cursing the one carrying alcohol referred to those serving alcohol with the intention sin or partaking in the sin. He becomes cursed due to sharing the burden of sin in such a case.

This was the case of alcohol itself. As for you working in the amazon warehouse where packaging items; lawful or unlawful is part of your job, you are being paid for your own services. The same applies to delivery services as well.  The burden of sin lies with the owner which you have no connection with. So, in principle, it is still permissible for you to work there and your income will not be rendered unlawful. This is from the Islamic legal standpoint but for personal piety, you may choose to avoid it if you so wish.

 [Allãh Knows Best]

Written and researched by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] Durrul Mukhtar wa Raddul Muhtar Kitab al-Hadhr wal Ibahat, Bab Istibra wa Ghairihi, p. 562 vol 9

(وَ) جَازَ تَعْمِيرُ كَنِيسَةٍ وَ (حَمْلُ خَمْرِ ذِمِّيٍّ) بِنَفْسِهِ أَوْ دَابَّتِهِ (بِأَجْرٍ) لَا عَصْرُهَا لِقِيَامِ الْمَعْصِيَةِ بِعَيْنِهِ.

(قَوْلُهُ وَحَمْلُ خَمْرِ ذِمِّيٍّ)  قَالَ الزَّيْلَعِيُّ: وَهَذَا عِنْدَهُ وَقَالَا هُوَ مَكْرُوهٌ ” لِأَنَّهُ – عَلَيْهِ الصَّلَاةُ وَالسَّلَامُ – «لَعَنَ فِي الْخَمْرِ عَشَرَةً وَعَدَّ مِنْهَا حَامِلَهَا» وَلَهُ أَنَّ الْإِجَارَةَ عَلَى الْحَمْلِ وَهُوَ لَيْسَ بِمَعْصِيَةٍ، وَلَا سَبَبَ لَهَا وَإِنَّمَا تَحْصُلُ الْمَعْصِيَةُ بِفِعْلِ فَاعِلٍ مُخْتَارٍ، وَلَيْسَ الشُّرْبُ مِنْ ضَرُورَاتِ الْحَمْلِ، لِأَنَّ حَمْلَهَا قَدْ يَكُونُ لِلْإِرَاقَةِ أَوْ لِلتَّخْلِيلِ، فَصَارَ كَمَا إذَا اسْتَأْجَرَهُ لِعَصْرِ الْعِنَبِ أَوْ قَطْعِهِ وَالْحَدِيثُ مَحْمُولٌ عَلَى الْحَمْلِ الْمَقْرُونِ بِقَصْدِ الْمَعْصِيَةِ اهـ زَادَ فِي النِّهَايَةِ وَهَذَا قِيَاسٌ وَقَوْلُهُمَا اسْتِحْسَانٌ، ثُمَّ قَالَ الزَّيْلَعِيُّ: وَعَلَى هَذَا الْخِلَافِ لَوْ آجَرَهُ دَابَّةً لِيَنْقُلَ عَلَيْهَا الْخَمْرَ أَوْ آجَرَهُ نَفْسَهُ لِيَرْعَى لَهُ الْخَنَازِيرَ يَطِيبُ لَهُ الْأَجْرُ عِنْدَهُ وَعِنْدَهُمَا يُكْرَهُ.

Bahr Raiq Kitabūl Karahiyyat, p. 372 vol 8

[حَمْلُ خَمْرِ الذِّمِّيِّ بِأَجْرٍ]

قَالَ: – رَحِمَهُ اللَّهُ تَعَالَى – (وَحَمْلُ خَمْرِ الذِّمِّيِّ بِأَجْرٍ) يَعْنِي جَازَ ذَلِكَ وَهَذَا عِنْدَ الْإِمَامِ وَقَالَا يُكْرَهُ لِأَنَّهُ – عَلَيْهِ الصَّلَاةُ وَالسَّلَامُ – «لَعَنَ فِي الْخَمْرِ عَشَرَةً وَعَدَّ مِنْهَا حَامِلَهَا» وَلَهُ أَنَّ الْإِجَارَةَ عَلَى الْحَمْلِ وَهُوَ لَيْسَ بِمَعْصِيَةٍ وَإِنَّمَا الْمَعْصِيَةُ بِفِعْلِ فَاعِلٍ مُخْتَارٍ فَصَارَ كَمَنْ اسْتَأْجَرَهُ لِعَصْرِ خَمْرِ الْعِنَبِ وَقَطْفِهِ، وَالْحَدِيثُ يُحْمَلُ عَلَى الْحَمْلِ الْمَقْرُونِ بِقَصْدِ الْمَعْصِيَةِ وَعَلَى هَذَا الْخِلَافِ إذَا أَجَّرَ دَابَّةً لِيَحْمِلَ عَلَيْهَا الْخَمْرَ أَوْ نَفْسَهُ لِيَرْعَى لَهُ الْخَنَازِيرَ فَإِنَّهُ يَطِيبُ لَهُ الْأَجْرُ عِنْدَهُ وَعِنْدَهُمَا يُكْرَهُ وَفِي التَّتَارْخَانِيَّة: وَلَوْ أَجَّرَ الْمُسْلِمُ نَفْسَهُ لِذِمِّيٍّ لِيَعْمَلَ فِي الْكَنِيسَةِ فَلَا بَأْسَ بِهِ وَفِي الذَّخِيرَةِ إذَا دَخَلَ يَهُودِيٌّ الْحَمَّامَ هَلْ يُبَاحُ لِلْخَادِمِ الْمُسْلِمِ أَنْ يَخْدُمَهُ قَالَ: إنْ خَدَمَهُ طَمَعًا فِي فُلُوسِهِ فَلَا بَأْسَ بِهِ وَإِنْ خَدَمَهُ تَعْظِيمًا لَهُ يُنْظَرُ إنْ فَعَلَ ذَلِكَ لِيُمِيلَ قَلْبَهُ إلَى الْإِسْلَامِ فَلَا بَأْسَ بِهِ وَإِنْ فَعَلَهُ تَعْظِيمًا لَهُ كُرِهَ ذَلِكَ وَعَلَى هَذَا إذَا دَخَلَ ذِمِّيٌّ عَلَى مُسْلِمٍ فَقَامَ لَهُ طَمَعًا فِي إسْلَامِهِ فَلَا بَأْسَ بِهِ وَإِنْ قَامَ لَهُ تَعْظِيمًا لَهُ كُرِهَ لَهُ ذَلِكَ.

30^th August 2021

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: Is freelancing in academic writing haram? one of Muslim sister has been doing academic writing for a while now and she has been thinking about it, she even quit for a while. So, please let me know, is getting paid for doing someone’s assignments and courses okay? Is the money halal? I mean it is technically, deceiving the professors though. (Then again, some people need that help and some of freelancer need that money). She wants to resume it but it she is not sure, please let me know soon as I want to help her.

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer: In reference to your query, freelancing is usually when a person offers their services for a fee; in this case offering the service of academic writing. When a student usually enrolls at a university, the university codes of honour and guidelines do specify that all work should undertaken by the student alone. Every student is required to sign a declaration that it is their work, otherwise they do not accept the essay. As the work of a freelancer explicitly goes against this agreement taken by the student, it will not be allowed to operate such freelancing service as this would fall under the ruling of deception and bribery,[1] as the essays etc would be passed off as the student’s own work when in actual fact are the freelancers work. There are verses in the Qur’an[2] and Ahadith [3] which clearly mention the prohibition of such. Due to this, the freelancing service in this case will not be allowed. The student also becomes sinful for paying someone to write their essay.

[Allāh Knows Best]

Written by:  Mufti Anas Mullah        Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam  

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] https://archive.org/details/FatawaMahmoodiyah-25Volumes-ByShaykhMuftiMahmoodHasanGangohir.a/FATAWA_MAHMOODIAH_VOL_18/page/n467/mode/1up

[2] Al qur’aan, 5:42

  أَكَّالُونَ لِلسُّحْتِ سَمَّاعُونَ لِلْكَذِبِ

Tafseer Qurtubi, vol 6 p183

وَقِيلَ: سُمِّيَ الْحَرَامُ سُحْتًا لِأَنَّهُ يَسْحَتُ مُرُوءَةَ الْإِنْسَانِ. قُلْتُ: وَالْقَوْلُ الْأَوَّلُ أَوْلَى، لِأَنَّ بِذَهَابِ الدِّينِ تَذْهَبُ الْمُرُوءَةُ، وَلَا مُرُوءَةَ لِمَنْ لَا دِينَ لَهُ. قَالَ ابْنُ مَسْعُودٍ وَغَيْرُهُ: السُّحْتُ الرُّشَا. وَقَالَ عُمَرُ بْنُ الْخَطَّابِ رَضِيَ اللَّهُ عَنْهُ: رِشْوَةُ الْحَاكِمِ مِنَ السُّحْتِ. وَعَنِ النَّبِيِّ صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ أَنَّهُ قَالَ: (كُلُّ لَحْمٍ نَبَتَ بِالسُّحْتِ فَالنَّارُ أَوْلَى بِهِ) قَالُوا: يَا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ وَمَا السُّحْتُ؟ قَالَ: (الرِّشْوَةُ فِي الْحُكْمِ). وَعَنِ ابْنِ مَسْعُودٍ أَيْضًا أَنَّهُ قَالَ: السُّحْتُ أَنْ يَقْضِيَ الرَّجُلُ لِأَخِيهِ حَاجَةً فَيُهْدِيَ إِلَيْهِ هَدِيَّةً فَيَقْبَلُهَا. وَقَالَ ابْنُ خُوَيْزِ مَنْدَادٍ: مِنَ السُّحْتِ أَنْ يَأْكُلَ الرَّجُلُ بِجَاهِهِ، وَذَلِكَ أَنْ يَكُونَ لَهُ جَاهٌ عِنْدَ السُّلْطَانِ فَيَسْأَلُهُ إِنْسَانٌ حَاجَةً فَلَا يَقْضِيهَا إِلَّا بِرِشْوَةٍ يَأْخُذُهَا. وَلَا خِلَافَ بَيْنَ السَّلَفِ أَنَّ أَخْذَ الرِّشْوَةِ عَلَى إِبْطَالِ حَقٍّ أَوْ مَا لَا يَجُوزُ سُحْتٌ حَرَامٌ. 

[3]

مسند أحمد بن حنبل مسند العشرة المبشرين بالجنة

عَنْ عَبْدِ اللَّهِ بْنِ مَسْعُودٍ عَنْ النَّبِيِّ صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ قَالَ لَعَنَ اللَّهُ آكِلَ الرِّبَا وَمُوكِلَهُ وَشَاهِدَيْهِ وَكَاتِبَهُ مَا ظَهَرَ فِي قَوْمٍ الرِّبَا وَالزِّنَا إِلَّا أَحَلُّوا بِأَنْفُسِهِمْ عِقَابَ اللَّهِ عَزَّ وَجَلَّ

29^th June 2020

 السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: What is the ruling on Forex trading in your view using the CFD method? Do you agree with those who prohibit it or not?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

In reference to your query, Forex trading is one of the most prevalent forms of online trading platforms with an estimated trading worth $5 trillion. It is based on a risk model where the trader stakes his money to earn profit. The outcome however is uncertain as to whether he will gain profit or suffer a loss. We have reviewed many fatawas on this topic and most are inclined towards its impermissibility due to it violating many of Islamic precepts. A thorough research into Forex trading, we have also concluded that Forex trading is not permissible for the reasons that will be discussed below.[1]

To first begin with, Forex trading – or sometimes referred to as FX – is a global market wherein traders buy and sell foreign currencies. It is not similar to for instance a person exchanging currency when travelling abroad who then uses the local currency for spending. Contrarily, Foreign exchange are traded in the hope of obtaining profit from a movement in the exchange rate. The entire market is based on speculation as the outcome of return is unknown. All traders are required to go through a broker or a dealer – the middle-man – who facilitates the trade. The currencies one intends to trade are paired e.g. GBP/USD. The currency you ‘go long’ with is the base currency you expect to make profit on. This appears first in the sequence so in this case the GBP. The second currency i.e. USD is the counter. Currency rates change almost every second so the trader observes to wait for a favourable exchange rate to derive profit. For instance, if the exchange rate between £ and $ is £1 = $1.23 and someone exchanges £300 for dollars then he will receive $369. If at a later date the value drops to £1 to $1.20 then when exchanged to pounds (from $369) the trader receives £307.50, with £7.50 profit. But if the value let’s say increases £1=1.24 then (after exchanging from $369) to pounds then the trader receives £297.58 with £2.42 loss. As everything is done through a broker, a small sum us required by the trader to make a trade, known as the margin.

Traditionally trades have been carried out using contracts for difference (CFD’s) which are derivatives contracts where the difference between the opening and closing trades is the cash amount settled. No exchange of physical goods takes place and no real ownership of the asset is established. However, some of the modern platforms allow the ‘direct trading of currencies’ but even in this case, no actual ownership of the currencies take place. The ‘profits’ made from forex trades is based on very small movements in exchange rates as such in order to increase the ‘profit’ made. The trader is required to leverage his margin (the amount he deposited to open a trade). Leverage refers to the ratio of the margin to the credit loaned by the broker i.e. it is a borrowed amount so that the trader can increase his returns. So, let’s assume that if a trader deposited £100 and leveraged that by 10 to make an investment then the amount he would actually have invested would be £1,000 which he would be fully liable for if he lost all in his trade. In addition, the traders are required to pay a commission either through the spread (the difference between the buy price and the sell price) or based on a % of the profit (which in reality is interest).[2]

There are many Sharī῾ah violations which many contemporary fatawas point out that make Forex trading impermissible in Islām.

1. Future Sales – Amongst the stipulated conditions for a valid transaction is that the exchange of price and commodity must not take place at a future date. In other words, it is mandatory for exchange to take place on the spot as indicated in the Prophetic narration when he said, hand for hand meaning spot transaction. In the Forex trading, the purpose is not to buy the currency but to accrue profit based on the different values favourable to the person. Future sales moreover result in deferral of debts exchanged on both sides that has been forbidden in a famous Hadeeth, prohibited is the sale of deferred debts with another differed debt (kāli bil Kāli). So no transaction takes into effect immediately.[3]
2. Absence of ownership – The paramount of all is the that Forex infringes the fundamental rule of ownership of the commodity. The Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam said, A man is not permitted to sell that which he does not own.” [4] The trader does not own anything he sells nor takes actual delivery of the currency but silently observes to speculate the movement of the currencies of one ‘going along’ and the other ‘going short’. In the background, the currencies have been transacted multiple times before settling on the final buying and selling price.
3. Profiting from Interest – Another key aspect warranting its prohibition is the interest accrued on the leverage amount arranged through the broker. As explained above that the broker loans the trader which he must then repay with interest. The profit earned on the borrowed amount is in reality interest because the profit in of itself is not earned in exchange of any commodity and moreover, the trader has no ownership of that.
4. Gharrar and Qimar – This means that in the Sharī῾ah all transactions must be based on certainty and that money is not staked for an uncertain outcome.[5] In Forex trading, the outcome of profit or loss in unknown and contingent on chance. The movement of values are all speculated by the broker.

So to conclude our answer, given the aforementioned Sharī῾ah violations, Forex market using CFD is not permissible.

[Allãh Knows Best]

Written and researched by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

[1] Amjad Mohammad, (Sept 2017), Is Forex Trading Permissible According to the Sharī῾ah? Markazul Ifta, UK

Mufti Faraz etal, (August 2018), Retail Forex Trading: Views from the front Lines of Islamic Finance, Shariyah Review Bureau, UK

https://www.fxcm.com/au/forex/what-is-forex/ [accessed 24th June 2020]

https://www.google.co.uk/search?q=ritical+evaluation+of+the+compliance+of+online+Islamic+FOREX+trading+with+Islamic+principles+pdf&oq=ritical+evaluation+of+the+compliance+of+online+Islamic+FOREX+trading+with+Islamic+principles+pdf&aqs=chrome..69i57.1486j0j8&sourceid=chrome&ie=UTF-8 [accessed 24th June 2020]

https://darulfiqh.com/knowledgebase/is-retail-forex-trading-shariah-compliant/ [accessed 24th June 2020]

https://daruliftaa.com/business-trade/trading-in-currencies/ [accessed 24th June 2020]

Mufti Muhammad Taqi Usmani (2007), Is Forex Currency Trading halal? https://www.albalagh.net/qa/Forex_currency_trading.shtml [accessed 24th June 2020]

[2] This detail was included by Maulana Abdul Mothin who has background experience of the Forex trading market.

[3] See Fiqh buyoo vol 1, p. 383-4, 483-4

Bayhaqi,

بابُ ما جاءَ فى النَّهىِ عن بَيعِ الدَّينِ بالدَّينِ

عن ابنِ عُمَرَ، أن النَّبِيَّ -صلي الله عليه وسلم- نَهَى عن بَيعِ الكالِى بالكالِى

[4] Ibn Majah no; 2187

بَابُ النَّهْيِ عَنْ بَيْعِ مَا لَيْسَ عِنْدَكَ، وَعَنْ رِبْحِ مَا لَمْ يُضْمَنْ

عَنْ حَكِيمِ بْنِ حِزَامٍ، قَالَ: قُلْتُ: يَا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ الرَّجُلُ يَسْأَلُنِي الْبَيْعَ وَلَيْسَ عِنْدِي، أَفَأَبِيعُهُ؟ قَالَ: «لَا تَبِعْ مَا لَيْسَ عِنْدَكَ»

Nasai, No: 4611

بَيْعُ مَا لَيْسَ عِنْدَ الْبَائِعِ

عَنْ عَمْرِو بْنِ شُعَيْبٍ، عَنْ أَبِيهِ، عَنْ جَدِّهِ قَالَ: قَالَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ: «لَيْسَ عَلَى رَجُلٍ بَيْعٌ فِيمَا لَا يَمْلِكُ»

[5] Fiqh buyoo vol 1, p. 339-40, 344-6

9^th February 2020

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: There is a shopping mall which is halfway through being built. The foundation of the construction is built however it’s all concrete and steel work yet. This mall is going to have around 600 individual shops inside and each “shop” is being sold separately to anyone interested. My question is, am I allowed to buy one of these shops, (as a means of investment, where I will be able to receive monthly rent from) even though the building is not complete yet?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

Amongst the conditions for a sale to be valid is the existence of the commodity during the exchange of the product and money. An item that is non-existent during the transaction is known as ma’doom and to trade in a ma’doom commodity renders the transaction as invalid.[1] Jurists, however, have exempted the sale of Istisna’ which means trading in such a commodity that one has requested to be manufactured or built with specific details according to their needs. This form of transaction has been validated by the consensus of jurists due to the customary practice of people so as not to burden them.[2]

With specific reference to your case, Islamically it will only fall under the sale of Istisna’ if it is built according to your specific requirements given that it is to fulfil your needs.[3] If this is not the case nor do you have any say in how the shop should be built but instead, the company builds it according to their standards then it falls under the sale of a non-existing item which suggests that it will not be permissible for you to purchase.

[Allãh Knows Best]

Written and Researched by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] Durrul Mukhtār wa hashiyah Ibn Ābideen Shāmi, Kitābus Salāh, Bāb Shurootus Salāh, vol 4 p. 505

[كِتَابُ الْبُيُوعِ]

وَشَرْطُ مَكَانِهِ وَاحِدٌ، وَهُوَ اتِّحَادُ الْمَجْلِسِ. وَشَرْطُ الْمَعْقُودِ عَلَيْهِ سِتَّةٌ: كَوْنُهُ مَوْجُودًا مَالًا مُتَقَوِّمًا مَمْلُوكًا فِي نَفْسِهِ، وَكَوْنُ الْمِلْكِ لِلْبَائِعِ فِيمَا يَبِيعُهُ لِنَفْسِهِ، وَكَوْنُهُ مَقْدُورَ التَّسْلِيمِ فَلَمْ يَنْعَقِدْ بَيْعُ الْمَعْدُومِ وَمَا لَهُ خَطَرُ الْعَدَمِ كَالْحَمْلِ وَاللَّبَنِ فِي الضَّرْعِ وَالثَّمَرِ قَبْلَ ظُهُورِهِ وَهَذَا الْعَبْدُ فَإِذَا هُوَ جَارِيَةٌ،

Kasān, Badā’i Sanāi, Kitāb al-Buyoo, vol 6 p. 542

[فَصْلٌ فِي الشَّرْط الَّذِي يَرْجِعُ إلَى الْمَعْقُودِ عَلَيْهِ]

وَأَمَّا الَّذِي يَرْجِعُ إلَى الْمَعْقُودِ عَلَيْهِ فَأَنْوَاعٌ (مِنْهَا) : أَنْ يَكُونَ مَوْجُودًا فَلَا يَنْعَقِدُ بَيْعُ الْمَعْدُومِ، وَمَالَهُ خَطَرُ الْعَدَمِ كَبَيْعِ نِتَاجِ النِّتَاجِ بِأَنْ قَالَ: بِعْتُ وَلَدَ وَلَدِ هَذِهِ النَّاقَةِ وَكَذَا بَيْعُ الْحَمْلِ؛ لِأَنَّهُ إنْ بَاعَ الْوَلَدَ فَهُوَ بَيْعُ الْمَعْدُومِ، وَإِنْ بَاعَ الْحَمْلَ فَلَهُ خَطَرُ الْمَعْدُومِ، وَكَذَا بَيْعُ اللَّبَنِ فِي الضَّرْعِ؛ لِأَنَّهُ لَهُ خَطَرٌ لِاحْتِمَالِ انْتِفَاخِ الضَّرْعِ

[2] Kasān, Badā’i Sanāi, Kitāb al-Buyoo, vol 7 p. 135

[فَصْلٌ فِي الشَّرْط الَّذِي يَرْجِعُ إلَى الْمُسْلَمِ]

الْكَلَامُ فِي الِاسْتِصْنَاعِ فِي مَوَاضِعَ: فِي بَيَانِ جَوَازِهِ أَنَّهُ جَائِزٌ أَمْ لَا؟ وَفِي بَيَانِ شَرَائِطِ جَوَازِهِ، وَفِي بَيَانِ كَيْفِيَّةِ جَوَازِهِ، وَفِي بَيَانِ حُكْمِهِ. (أَمَّا) الْأَوَّلُ: فَالْقِيَاسُ يَأْبَى جَوَازَ الِاسْتِصْنَاعِ؛ لِأَنَّهُ بَيْعُ الْمَعْدُومِ كَالسَّلَمِ بَلْ هُوَ أَبْعَدُ جَوَازًا مِنْ السَّلَمِ؛ لِأَنَّ الْمُسْلَمَ فِيهِ تَحْتَمِلُهُ الذِّمَّةُ؛ لِأَنَّهُ دَيْنٌ حَقِيقَةً، وَالْمُسْتَصْنَعُ عَيْنٌ تُوجَدُ فِي الثَّانِي، وَالْأَعْيَانُ لَا تَحْتَمِلُهَا الذِّمَّةُ فَكَانَ جَوَازُ هَذَا الْعَقْدِ أَبْعَدَ عَنْ الْقِيَاسِ عَنْ السَّلَمِ وَفِي الِاسْتِحْسَانِ جَازَ؛ لِأَنَّ النَّاسَ تَعَامَلُوهُ فِي سَائِرِ الْأَعْصَارِ مِنْ غَيْرِ نَكِيرٍ فَكَانَ إجْمَاعًا مِنْهُمْ عَلَى الْجَوَازِ فَيُتْرَكُ الْقِيَاسُ، ثُمَّ هُوَ بَيْعٌ عِنْدَ عَامَّةِ مَشَايِخِنَا، وَقَالَ بَعْضُهُمْ: هُوَ عِدَّةٌ وَلَيْسَ بِسَدِيدٍ؛ لِأَنَّ مُحَمَّدًا ذَكَرَ الْقِيَاسَ وَالِاسْتِحْسَانَ فِي جَوَازِهِ، وَذِكْرُ الْقِيَاسِ وَالِاسْتِحْسَانِ لَا يَلِيقُ بِالْعِدَّاتِ، وَكَذَا ثَبَتَ خِيَارُ الرُّؤْيَةِ لِلْمُسْتَصْنِعِ وَإِنَّهُ مِنْ خَصَائِصِ الْبُيُوعِ، وَكَذَا مِنْ شَرْطِ جَوَازِهِ أَنْ يَكُونَ فِيمَا لِلنَّاسِ فِيهِ تَعَامُلٌ، وَالْعِدَّاتُ لَا يَتَقَيَّدُ جَوَازُهَا بِهَذِهِ الشَّرَائِطِ فَدَلَّ أَنَّ جَوَازَهُ جَوَازُ الْبِيَاعَاتِ لَا جَوَازُ الْعِدَّاتِ، وَاَللَّهُ سُبْحَانَهُ وَتَعَالَى أَعْلَمُ.

Kasān, Badā’i Sanāi, Kitāb al-Istisna’, vol 6 p. 85

وَأَمَّا جَوَازُهُ، فَالْقِيَاسُ: أَنْ لَا يَجُوزَ؛ لِأَنَّهُ بَيْعُ مَا لَيْسَ عِنْدَ الْإِنْسَانِ، لَا عَلَى وَجْهِ السَّلَمِ، وَقَدْ نَهَى رَسُولُ اللَّهِ – صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ – عَنْ بَيْعِ مَا لَيْسَ عِنْدَ الْإِنْسَانِ، وَرَخَّصَ فِي السَّلَمِ، وَيَجُوزُ اسْتِحْسَانًا؛ لِإِجْمَاعِ النَّاسِ عَلَى ذَلِكَ؛ لِأَنَّهُمْ يَعْمَلُونَ ذَلِكَ فِي سَائِرِ الْأَعْصَارِ مِنْ غَيْرِ نُكْرٍ، وَقَدْ قَالَ – عَلَيْهِ الصَّلَاةُ وَالسَّلَامُ -: «لَا تَجْتَمِعُ أُمَّتِي عَلَى ضَلَالَةٍ» وَقَالَ – عَلَيْهِ الصَّلَاةُ وَالسَّلَامُ -: «مَا رَآهُ الْمُسْلِمُونَ حَسَنًا؛ فَهُوَ عِنْدَ اللَّهِ حَسَنٌ، وَمَا رَآهُ الْمُسْلِمُونَ قَبِيحًا؛ فَهُوَ عِنْدَ اللَّهِ قَبِيحٌ» وَالْقِيَاسُ يُتْرَكُ بِالْإِجْمَاعِ،

[3] See Shaykh Mufti Taqi Usmani, Fiqhul Buyoo vol 1 p. 604-5

22^nd February 2018

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: I would like to know whether it is permissible to rent out a hall or not for wedding functions. Many times weddings are mixed and other unlawful activities take place such as music, dancing etc. You will be aware of the manner in which women dress at weddings. Without Hijab and tight immodest clothing. What is the standard ruling in the Hanafi Madhab of renting out a hall for such purpose?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

The case in question reflects the principle of assisting upon sin. Although the scholars unanimously agree that assisting upon sin is prohibited due to the Qur’anic command, “..and do not assist one another upon sin and transgression”, they nevertheless differ in its application particularly the Hanafi jurists. Imām Abū Haneefah rahimahullah views that the crime of assisting upon sin is ruled only if the object; sold or leased, is evil (munkar) in itself and used for a single purpose only, committing evil e.g. alcohol. His two students; Imām Abū Yusuf rahimahullah and Imām Muhammad rahimahullah (also known as Sahibain) contrarily view that the object to be evil in itself is not conditional as in even a Halāl object sold or rented out knowing that the receiver will utilise it for evil purpose is also a crime of assisting upon a sin.

So if someone rents out a hall for a wedding function knowing that unlawful activities will take place then according to the Sahibain it is not permissible whilst Imām Abū Haneefah rahimahullah does not deem it as unlawful.

The Sahibain adduce the above Quranic verse to be an unqualified command that prohibits all types of mediums that constitute assisting upon sin. Renting out a place knowing that people will indulge in sin is by way of facilitating the act of sin otherwise the sin would not have been possible had he not rented it out in the first place. Imām Abū Haneefah rahimahullah on the other hand interprets the prohibition in reference to those acts that are innately a sin. In principle, the landlord’s intention was to charge remuneration of the usufruct (manf’ah) of the place and what they do is at their own discretion. As long as the necessary conditions of Ijarah (leasing) being fulfilled, he is entitled to rent. His connection with the perpetrator’s discretionary action for sinful purpose is severed, so he bears no burden of sin of someone else’s actions.[1] For the purpose of clarity, according to Imām Sāhib rahimahullah, the rented property is utilised for both lawful and unlawful purpose by the tenant’s own action. It thus cannot be deemed as prohibited nor assistance upon sin. They utilising it for sinful purpose is, according to Imām Sāhib rahimahullah, their own discretionary choice, which the landlord has no control over. His two students, on the other hand, take the knowledge of sin into consideration so as not to open the doors of sin.

Based on the above differences, in your particular case, you may adopt Imām Abū Haneefah’s rahimahullah opinion of permissibility but ethically, from taqwa perspective, you should adopt the position of his two students by avoiding it altogether especially if there are ways of avoiding it. Should you follow Imām Sāhib’s rahimahullah opinion then the least you must do is advise them against the sinful acts so at least you have fulfilled your moral responsibility of enjoining good and forbidding evil.[2]

 [Allãh Knows Best]

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] Badrudeed al-Ayni, Binayah Sharhul Hidāya Kitāb al-Karahiyyah, fasl fil bay’i, vol 12p.220-1 – Shamila

أجر بيتا ليتخذ فيه بيت نار]

(قال) ش: أي في ” الجامع الصغير “: م: (ومن أجر بيتا ليتخذ فيه بيت نار) ش: للمجوس م: (أو كنيسة) ش: للنصارى م: (أو بيعة) ش: لليهود م: (أو يباع فيه الخمر) ش: لأهل الذمة أو الفسقة من المسلمين م: (بالسواد) ش: يتعلق بالجميع تقديره: من أجر بيتا في السواد ليتخذ فيه بيت نار وكذلك البواقي، وإنما قيد بالسواد لأن أهل الذمة يمنعون عن إحداث البيع، والكنائس وبيع الخمر في الأمصار ولا يمنعون عن ذلك في السواد لأن عامة شعائر الإسلام من الجمع والجماعات والأعياد وإقامة الحدود وغير ذلك يختص بالأمصار، ففي هذه الأشياء استحقاق بالمسلمين بخلاف السواد. وقالوا أيضا في سواد الكوفة، لأن الغالب فيها أهل الذمة والروافض، أما في سوادنا فيمتنعون عن إحداث ذلك، لأن الغلبة في سوادنا لأهل الإسلام فيمنعون عن ذلك في السواد والأمصار جميعا. م: (فلا بأس به) ش: أي بما ذكر من الأشياء م: (وهذا عند أبي حنيفة – رَحِمَهُ اللَّهُ -) ش: أي هذا الذي ذكرناه من الجواز عند أبي حنيفة. (وقالا: لا ينبغي أن يكريه لشيء من ذلك) ش: أي يؤجره، يقال: أكراني داره أو دابته، أي أجرنيها، والمعنى: أنه لا يجوز أن يكري بيته بشيء من الذي ذكرناه، وبه قالت الثلاثة – رَحِمَهُمُ اللَّهُ – م: (لأنه إعانة على المعصية) ش: والمعين على المعصية عاص. م: (وله) ش: أي ولأبي حنيفة – رَحِمَهُ اللَّهُ -: م: (أن الإجارة ترد على منفعة البيت ولهذا تجب الأجرة بمجرد التسليم، ولا معصية فيه) ش: أي في إجارة البيت م: (وإنما المعصية بفعل المستأجر وهو مختار فيه) ش: أي المستأجر مختار في فعل المعصية يعني أن ذلك باختياره، م: (فقطع نسبته عنه) ش: أي قطع نسبة المعصية عن العقد.

Ibn Nujaym, Bahr Rāiq, Kitāb al-Karahiyyah, fasl fil bay’i, vol 8 p. 371

(وَإِجَارَةُ بَيْتٍ لِيُتَّخَذَ بَيْتَ نَارٍ أَوْ بِيعَةً أَوْ كَنِيسَةً أَوْ يُبَاعَ فِيهِ خَمْرٌ بِالسَّوَادِ) يَعْنِي جَازَ إجَارَةُ الْبَيْتِ لِكَافِرٍ لِيُتَّخَذُ مَعْبَدًا أَوْ بَيْتَ نَارٍ لِلْمَجُوسِ أَوْ يُبَاعَ فِيهِ خَمْرٌ فِي السَّوَادِ وَهَذَا قَوْلُ الْإِمَامِ وَقَالَا: يُكْرَهُ كُلُّ ذَلِكَ لِقَوْلِهِ تَعَالَى {وَتَعَاوَنُوا عَلَى الْبِرِّ وَالتَّقْوَى وَلا تَعَاوَنُوا عَلَى الإِثْمِ وَالْعُدْوَانِ} [المائدة: 2] وَلَهُ أَنَّ الْإِجَارَةَ عَلَى مَنْفَعَةِ الْبَيْتِ وَلِهَذَا تَجِبُ الْأُجْرَةُ بِمُجَرَّدِ التَّسْلِيمِ وَلَا مَعْصِيَةَ فِيهِ وَإِنَّمَا الْمَعْصِيَةُ بِفِعْلِ الْمُسْتَأْجِرِ وَهُوَ مُخْتَارٌ فِيهِ فَقَطَعَ نِسْبَةَ ذَلِكَ إلَى الْمُؤَجِّرِ وَصَارَ كَبَيْعِ الْجَارِيَةِ لِمَنْ لَا يَسْتَبْرِئُهَا أَوْ يَأْتِيهَا فِي دُبُرِهَا أَوْ بَيْعِ الْغُلَامِ مِمَّنْ يَلُوطُ بِهِ وَالدَّلِيلُ عَلَيْهِ أَنَّهُ لَوْ أَجَّرَهُ لِلسُّكْنَى جَازَ وَلَا بُدَّ فِيهِ مِنْ عِبَادَتِهِ وَإِنَّمَا قَيَّدَهُ بِالسَّوَادِ؛ لِأَنَّهُمْ لَا يُمَكَّنُونَ مِنْ ذَلِكَ فِي الْأَمْصَارِ وَلَا يُمَكَّنُونَ مِنْ إظْهَارِ بَيْعِ الْخَمْرِ وَالْخِنْزِيرِ فِي الْأَمْصَارِ لِظُهُورِ شَعَائِرِ الْإِسْلَامِ فَلَا يُعَارَضُ بِظُهُورِ شَعَائِرِ الْكُفْرِ قَالُوا فِي هَذَا سَوَادُ الْكُوفَةِ؛ لِأَنَّ غَالِبَ أَهْلِهَا أَهْلُ ذِمَّةٍ، وَأَمَّا فِي غَيْرِهَا فِيهَا شَعَائِرُ الْإِسْلَامِ ظَاهِرَةٌ فَلَا يُمَكَّنُونَ فِيهَا فِي الْأَصَحِّ

[2] Sarakhsi, al-Mabsoot, Kitāb al-Ijarah, Bāb Ij āratul Duwar wal Buyoot, vol 15 p. 151

وَلَوْ كَانَ الْمُسْتَأْجِرُ مُسْلِمًا فَظَهَرَ مِنْهُ فِسْقٌ فِي الدَّارِ أَوْ دَعَارَةٌ أَوْ كَانَ يَجْمَعُ فِيهَا عَلَى الشُّرْبِ مَنَعَهُ رَبُّ الدَّارِ مِنْ ذَلِكَ كُلِّهِ لَا لِمِلْكِهِ الدَّارَ بَلْ عَلَى سَبِيلِ النَّهْيِ عَنْ الْمُنْكَرِ فَإِنَّهُ فَرْضٌ عَلَى كُلِّ مُسْلِمٍ صَاحِبُ الدَّارِ وَغَيْرُهُ فِيهِ سَوَاءٌ، وَلَيْسَ لِرَبِّ الدَّارِ أَنْ يُخْرِجَهُ مِنْ الدَّارِ مِنْ أَجْلِ ذَلِكَ مُسْلِمًا كَانَ أَوْ ذِمِّيًّا؛ لِأَنَّ عَقْدَ الْإِجَارَةِ لَازِمٌ لَا يُفْسَخُ إلَّا بِعُذْرٍ وَالْعُذْرُ ضَرَرٌ يَزُولُ بِفَسْخِ الْإِجَارَةِ وَهَذَا لَيْسَ مِنْ تِلْكَ الْجُمْلَةِ فَلَا تُفْسَخُ الْإِجَارَةُ لِأَجْلِهِ أَرَأَيْتَ لَوْ كَانَ بَاعَهُ الدَّارَ كَانَ يَفْسَخُ الْبَيْعَ؛ لِمَا ظَهَرَ مِنْهُ لَا سَبِيلَ لَهُ إلَى ذَلِكَ، فَكَذَلِكَ الْإِجَارَةُ،

28^th April 2017

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: Will it be permissible for me to buy stocks/shares of the company Armaco?

 الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

Amarco is a Saudi state-owned oil company based in Dhahran. It deals with crude oil, petroleum and natural gas with an estimated value of one trillion dollars of investment. Based on the information provided, they deal mainly with natural and energy resources.[1] From the Shari’ee point of view, natural and energy resources are permissible for trade and regarded as intrinsic value (mutaqawwam) for buying and selling.

Contemporary scholars such as Shaykh Mufti Taqi Usmani view the permissibility of buying and selling shares in a company. He argues that the status of a company falls somewhat similar to Musharakat (partnership)[2] in the sense that he purchases a certain percentage of ownership in the assets of the company. Buying and selling shares is permissible with the following conditions,

1. The trade must be in the form of fixed assets rather than currency. In other words, the exchange of items must be cash and assets. An exchange between the same currencies is permissible with the same quantity on both sides. Either side being more than the other becomes interest (riba) which will not be permissible.
2. Being a shareholder does not imply merely owing certain rights in a company but assets of the company. Trading in bundles of rights would not be permissible because of the absence of assets.
3. The company should not deal with interest. Should they do so then he must voice his disapproval of it.[3]
4. If the shareholder receives interest unintentionally then he must dispose of it by giving it away to the poor and needy or community service project without the intention of reward.[4]

[Allãh Knows Best]

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] http://www.saudiaramco.com/en/home.html

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Saudi_Aramco

[2] It must be noted that its similarity is subtle otherwise there are some distinctions between Musharakat and company such as individual ownership in partnership whereas the company is regulated by the state, a partner can choose to exit the business and take his stock whereas a shareholder in a company can only sell his share in order to exit.

[3] It must be remembered that the company directors represent (wakeel) all the shareholders from a Shar’ee perspective,

[4] Mufti Taqi Usmani – Islām aur Jadeed Ma’eeshat wa Tijarat

• Buying and selling Shares, Fiqhi Maqalāt vol1, p.141

Maulāna Khalid Saifullah Rahmani – buying and selling Shares, Jadeed Fiqhi Mabahith, p. 249, vol 4