Author: jknfatawa1

Nail Varnish

jknfatawa1 Women
Nail Varnish

7th December 2015

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question. Are we allowed to scrape off nail varnish from a deceased person?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

In general principle, the rules pertaining to bathing a deceased person do not differ from a living person. This is why scholars state that the Sunnah method of bathing during one’s lifetime also applies to the same individual when passing away.[1] The obligatory acts therefore would apply, that is, anything left on the limb preventing water reaching to the skin must be removed for the Ghusl to be complete.[2] In this regard, it is not only permissible but necessary to remove the nail varnish from the deceased person for the ghusl to be complete.

[1] Badai Sanai  Kit ābus Salāh Fasl fi kaifiyyati Ghuslil Mayyit, p. 309 vol 2

ثُمَّ يُوَضَّأُ وُضُوءَهُ لِلصَّلَاةِ لِمَا رُوِيَ عَنْ النَّبِيِّ – صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ – أَنَّهُ قَالَ «لِلَّاتِي غَسَّلْنَ ابْنَتَهُ ابْدَأْنَ بِمَيَامِنِهَا، وَمَوَاضِعِ الْوُضُوءِ مِنْهَا» ؛ وَلِأَنَّ هَذَا سُنَّةُ الِاغْتِسَالِ فِي حَالَةِ الْحَيَاةِ فَكَذَا  بَعْدَ الْمَمَاتِ

[2] Hindiyah Kitabu Taharat Bāb al Ghusl, p. 16 vol 1

وَإِنْ كَانَ عَلَى ظَاهِرِ بَدَنِهِ جِلْدُ سَمَكٍ أَوْ خُبْزٌ مَمْضُوغٌ قَدْ جَفَّ فَاغْتَسَلَ وَلَمْ يَصِلْ الْمَاءُ إلَى مَا تَحْتَهُ لَا يَجُوزُ

A Woman Menstruating During Hajj

jknfatawa1 Hajj & Umrah

30th October 2015

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: I intend to perform Hajj Tamattu and want to know what should I do if I menstruate before or after I enter into Ihrām. If before the 8th Dhul Hijjah, I still menstruate then how should I come out of Ihrām? If I cannot complete Umrah because of menstruation then should I cut my hair to come out of Ihrām? Because of menstruation, I could not complete Umrah before the 8th Dhul Hijjah, what type of Hajj must I make the intention of? Can I still make intention for Hajj of Tamattu?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

Menstrual related queries for women during Hajj are very common and can be somewhat complexed and confusing if not understood properly. There are number of scenarios in your question, from which the most common ones are outlined below so to give you a basic understanding of what to do in each given case.

You make the intention to perform Tamattu Hajj but envisage the possibility of either;

  1. Menstruate before putting on your Ihrām and will finish before the 8th of Dhul Hijjah (which is the 1st day of Hajj), for instance, you stop on the 7th, or
  2. Menstruate after putting on your Ihrām but will stop before the 8th of Dhul Hijjah, or
  3. Menstruate before or after your Ihrām and will most likely extend beyond the 8th, eventually entering into the actual days of Hajj.

In scenario 1 & 2 the ruling is straight forward, as in to simply remain in the state of Ihrām until you finish menstruating and thereafter have a bath and perform Umrah as Umrah can be performed any time before the 8th Dhul-Hijjah. After coming out of the Umrah Ihrām, the Ihrām intention for Hajj must be renewed on the night of 8th before Fajr.

The third scenario, more so relevant to your case is as follows,

  1. If your menses starts after Ihrām of Umrah then you must come out of Ihrām by cutting your hair. This is known as rafdh – meaning abandoning or breaking your Umrah before completing its ritual acts. As a result of coming out of Ihrām of Umrah earlier, you must give a Damm (sacrifice a sheep or goat) and also make Qadha of the Umrah after completing your Hajj.[1]
  2. In the case where you menstruate before putting on your Ihrām of Tamattu (with the likely chance of extending beyond the 8th) then I would suggest you make the intention of Hajj of Ifrād instead. Ifrād means intending to perform Hajj alone, thus no need to worry about performing Umrah. The moment you reach Makkah (after making the intention of Ifrād) you will remain in the state of Ihrām until the 10th of Dhul-Hijjah. There is no penalty for missing the initial Tawāf Qudoom. For a mufrid (the one performing Ifrād) sacrificing an animal on the 10th of Dhul-Hijjah is not compulsory,[2] thus you may come out of Ihrām before that. But if you still intend to perform Tamattu then refer to the above.

 

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

[1] Fatawa Hindiyyah, Kitāb al-Manāsik, Bāb Izāfatul Ihrām ilal Ihrām p. 280 vol 1

وَلَوْ أَحْرَمَ بِالْعُمْرَةِ ثُمَّ بِالْحَجِّ وَلَمْ يَأْتِ بِشَيْءٍ مِنْ أَفْعَالِ الْعُمْرَةِ فَإِنَّهُ يَرْفُضُ الْعُمْرَةَ اتِّفَاقًا هَكَذَا فِي الْكَافِي فَإِنْ طَافَ لِعُمْرَتِهِ أَرْبَعَةَ أَشْوَاطٍ ثُمَّ أَحْرَمَ بِالْحَجِّ رَفَضَ الْحَجَّ بِلَا خِلَافٍ وَعَلَيْهِ دَمُ الرَّفْضِ أَيَّهُمَا رَفَضَهُ إلَّا أَنَّ فِي رَفْضِ الْعُمْرَةِ قَضَاءَهَا وَفِي رَفْضِ الْحَجِّ قَضَاءَهُ وَعُمْرَةً

Ibn Humām, Fathul Qadeer, Kitāb al-Hajj, p. 429 vol 2

وَفِي الصَّحِيحَيْنِ مِنْ «قَوْلِ عَائِشَةَ – رَضِيَ اللَّهُ عَنْهَا – يَا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ تَنْطَلِقُونَ بِحَجَّةٍ وَعُمْرَةٍ وَأَنْطَلِقُ بِحَجٍّ؟ فَأَمَرَ عَبْدَ الرَّحْمَنِ بْنَ أَبِي بَكْرٍ أَنْ يَخْرُجَ مَعَهَا إلَى التَّنْعِيمِ فَاعْتَمَرَتْ بَعْدَ الْحَجِّ»

[2] Fatawa Hindiyyah, Kitāb al-Manāsik, Bāb Kaifiyyatu Adāil Hajj p. 255 vol 1

ثُمَّ يَرْجِعُ إلَى مِنًى فَإِنْ كَانَ مَعَهُ نُسُكٌ ذَبَحَهُ، وَإِنْ لَمْ يَكُنْ فَلَا يَضُرُّهُ لِأَنَّهُ مُفْرِدٌ بِالْحَجِّ

Father Passed Away Leaving Behind His Wife, Three Sons and Five Daughters

jknfatawa1 Inheritance

26th October 2015

                                                                                               

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: My father has passed away and our mother is still alive. Mother owns her home and she has 8 children; 3 sons and 5 daughters. She has asked me to find out how this should be divided Islamically. I am finding it difficult to give her the right answer so please explain this clearly.

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

In reference to your case scenario, after discharging all funeral expenses, clearing all outstanding debts and executing one-third of the will from the deceased’s wealth (that is if he made a will), whatever remains from your father’s estate must be distributed among his legal heirs namely; his wife, sons and daughters. The first 1/8th of the total asset must be subtracted for his wife’s (your mother) share. Thereafter whatever remains must be divided by 11 shares between the children; each son inheriting double the share of each daughter.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

Burying a Foetus

jknfatawa1 Death (Janazah)

22nd October 2015

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Questions

  1. What does Islam say in regards to a foetus born before 24 weeks pregnancy, should we allow the hospital to bury it or bury it straight away yourself?
  1. Is communal burial ok i.e to bury in a grave altogether?
  1. If a baby dies soon after birth and does breath can this baby go in a communal grave or does it have to be a separate grave?
  1. If a foetus or a baby requires to be buried then should this be done straight away or can it be left for 4-12 weeks as some hospitals do?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

1: In reference to your query, if the hospital gives you the legal right to take the foetus and bury it yourself then you should do so and bury it straightaway.

 

2: Yes a communal burial is permissible. Note that no ritual bath, shrouding and Janazah Salāh apply to a foetus.

 

3: It can be and should be buried in a communal grave. Just to note that any baby delivered showing signs of life before dying must be named, given a ritual bath and shrouded. Thereafter, Janazah Salāh must be performed on it.

 

4: It should be buried straight away. Unnecessary delay in the burial is makrooh (disliked).

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

Zakāt on Monthly Mortgage

jknfatawa1 Zakat & Charity

1st September 2015

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: Man is Mālik (owner) of gold on his parent’s side and a Wife is owner of gold on her parent’s side.

  1. From 2009 to 2013, the monthly mortgage payment was £400 (25 year mortgage/house loan). After paying all expenses, £6000 remains in his savings in 2010. This does not increase during 2011,2012,2013. Gold on Man’s parents side is more than 7.5 tolas. Wife has gold more than 7.5 tolas on her parent’s side. What is the ruling of Zakāt on both the man and wife until 2013?
  2. House was repossessed in 2014. The bank sold house at a cheaper price. Total outstanding balance was £17000. Bank is chasing for this. The man’s cash plus gold are no more than £ 17000. Do they still need to pay Zakāt?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

1: In reference to your query, with the exception of the monthly mortgage payment, Zakāt is obligatory on the £6000 savings and the 7.5 tola of gold because of each of them reaches the required Nisāb level. Zakāt for both cash and gold must be calculated separately and not combined. [1] As a note, the man and wife are individually responsible for paying Zakāt on their own Zakatable assets if they are considered the sole owners of it. The man is not liable for paying Zakāt on his wife’s behalf and vice-versa. Whoever is considered the owner of £6000 is responsible for paying Zakāt on it. Any previous years of outstanding Zakāt on both articles should be calculated as well.

2: In this scenario, Zakāt will not be necessary as your debt now encompasses all your savings.[2]

[Allāh Knows Best]

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] Durrul Mukhtār wa Hashiyah Ibn Ābideen as-Shāmi, Kitāb Zakāt, Bāb Zakātil Māl, p. 234 vol 3

وَإِنْ تَعَدَّدَ النِّصَابُ تَجِبُ إجْمَاعًا أَيْ بِحَيْثُ يَبْلُغُ قَبْلَ الضَّمِّ مَالُ كُلِّ وَاحِدٍ بِانْفِرَادِهِ نِصَابًا فَإِنَّهُ يَجِبُ حِينَئِذٍ عَلَى كُلٍّ مِنْهُمَا زَكَاةُ نِصَابِهِ

[2] Durrul Mukhtār wa Hashiyah Ibn Ābideen as-Shāmi, Kitāb Zakāt, p.180 vol3

(فَلَا زَكَاةَ عَلَى مُكَاتَبٍ) لِعَدَمِ الْمِلْكِ التَّامِّ…. (وَمَدْيُونٍ لِلْعَبْدِ بِقَدْرِ دَيْنِهِ) فَيُزَكِّي الزَّائِدُ إنْ بَلَغَ نِصَابًا

(قَوْلُهُ وَمَدْيُونٍ لِلْعَبْدِ) الْأَوْلَى وَمَدْيُونٍ بِدَيْنٍ يُطَالِبُهُ بِهِ الْعَبْدُ لِيَشْمَلَ دَيْنَ الزَّكَاةِ وَالْخَرَاجِ لِأَنَّهُ لِلَّهِ – تَعَالَى – مَعَ أَنَّهُ يَمْنَعُ لِأَنَّ لَهُ مُطَالِبًا مِنْ جِهَةِ الْعِبَادِ كَمَا مَرَّ

 

Keeping Guinea Pigs as Pets

jknfatawa1 Lawful & Unlawful

6th August 2015

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Questions: Are guinea pigs allowed to be kept as pets?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

As a general Islamic ruling, animals that are harmful by nature are not permissible to keep as pets such as snakes, scorpions and so forth. Animals that are generally not harmful and soft in nature are permissible to keep unless specified otherwise. The classical jurists have allowed keeping birds [non-predators] and pigeons as pets provided that the owner feeds them and cater for their welfare.[1] Guinea pigs are generally non-harmful and docile animals. Due this, their tenderness and responsiveness to handling makes them easy to be cared for which makes them very popular pets. Thus in principle domesticating them as pets will not be considered Harām at all.

But keep in mind that some animal experts have classed them as rodents [even though they are non-violent] because of their messiness and carelessness. They are prone to carelessly urinating and littering anywhere potentially making them unhygienic if not handled well or caged. It is therefore advisable to domesticate them only if they are handled with proper care, fed well and safeguarded from being unhygienic otherwise avoided altogether.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

[1] Durrul Mukhtār wal Hashiyah Ibn Ābideen as-Shāmi, Kitāb al-Hadhr wal Ibāhat, Bāb al-Istibrā wa Ghairihi, p.575 vol 9

وَأَمَّا لِلِاسْتِئْنَاسِ فَمُبَاحٌ كَشِرَاءِ عَصَافِيرَ لِيُعْتِقَهَا إنْ قَالَ مَنْ أَخَذَهَا فَهِيَ لَهُ وَلَا تَخْرُجُ عَنْ مِلْكِهِ بِإِعْتَاقِهِ، وَقِيلَ يُكْرَهُ لِأَنَّهُ تَضْيِيعُ الْمَالِ جَامِعُ الْفَتَاوَى (قَوْلُهُ وَأَمَّا لِلِاسْتِئْنَاسِ فَمُبَاحٌ) قَالَ فِي الْمُجْتَبَى رَامِزًا: لَا بَأْسَ بِحَبْسِ الطُّيُورِ وَالدَّجَاجِ فِي بَيْتِهِ، وَلَكِنْ يَعْلِفُهَا وَهُوَ خَيْرٌ مِنْ إرْسَالِهَا فِي السِّكَكِ

 

Distributing estate other than the legal Beneficiaries

jknfatawa1 Inheritance

6th August 2015

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Can you please clarify the following question regarding inheritance. My father who is deceased left the following properties in his name. To the best of my knowledge, they were purchased by my father and no other party contributed financially in purchasing the properties. The net cash has already been distributed in a sharia-compliant manner.

Business properties * 2

Marital home * 1 (Currently occupied by my mother, my brother his wife & kids). My Father made a request in his WILL that all properties including marital home should be transferred into the name of my Mother on his Death. Subsequently In my mother’s WILL (as a request of my father) all properties are scheduled to be divided equally between my oldest brother and his 3 children who currently reside in the marital home. None of the rightful heirs have challenged this & are financial stable in their own right, and all want to maintain family unity.

With a view to maintaining Sharia compliance & Family unity

Question 1 : Should the above 3 properties be included or excluded in my father’s estate and how to do it in a manner that fulfils my father’s & mother’s wishes, the rights of all the people residing in the marital home, the permanent need for them to still reside in the marital home without fear of any demands and maintain Sharia compliance.

Question 2: As a result of this, will my mother’s Will need updating accordingly

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

1: The outset of your query clearly suggests two main concerns; the first is questioning the legitimacy of the above-method distribution and secondly, the ethical approach of providing an alternative solution whereby it does not contravene the Shar’ee principles whilst maintaining the family unit. In the first point, Allāh I has stipulated in the Holy Qur’ān the shares of all the legal beneficiaries, so to intentionally overlook this command is a sin. In principle, your father’s total estate [which includes all the properties that he was the sole owner of during his lifetime] must be distributed proportionately between all his legal heirs [his wife, sons and daughters] according to the Quranic injunctions. This cannot be compromised. As far as the second point is concerned, one suggestion could be that the children willingly gift their share respectively to their mother after receiving them. It is permissible for the children to relinquish their rightful share of their father’s estate for their mother’s sake provided that everyone consents to it. No one has the right to coerce if they choose not to.

 

2: Yes, your mother’s Will needs amending. The Messenger of Allāh e said, “There is no Will for the inheritors”, which means that no Will is to be made for the inheritors’ share because their share has already been assigned by Allāh I in the Holy Qur’ān. She must state in her Will that her estate, which includes the house on her name, must be distributed amongst her children [not including her grandchildren] according to the Shar’ee principles. But if all mutually consent to gift their share to the son who is living with her then that is permissible.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

Seeing Ambiyah in Barzakh

jknfatawa1 Belief
Seeing Ambiyah in Barzakh

   18th July 2015                                                         

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: Do pious deceased see the Prophets ﷺ in barzakh, as well as their family relatives?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

No sound or definitive report suggests that pious deceased visit the Prophets alayhimussalaam in the Ālam-e-Barzakh. This does not, however, negate Allāh Almighty’s capability in allowing them to see the Prophets if He so wishes. We believe that all the souls are under the Divine Will of Allāh Almighty and He does as He wishes with them.

As for visiting their relatives in the Barzakh, there are reports indicating to this. Imām Jalālud-Deen As-Suyooti rahimahullah records some prophetic narrations mentioning that pious souls do meet the faithful souls of their family relatives who preceded them in death. For instance, The Messenger of Allāh ﷺ said, “When a man dies then his son meets him [who preceded him in death] like the absent one meets him.” In another narration, it mentions that the souls who proceeded in death [with Imān] greet the new souls of their family relatives and express happiness upon seeing them arriving more than a traveller who returns from his journey to meet his family. Some Ahādeeth also report that all of the faithful souls meet and enquire about the well-being of certain individuals in the world.[1] All of these reports suggest the possibility that the deceased person does meet his relatives in the Barzakh.

 

 [Allãh Knows Best]

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed            Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] As-Suyooti, Sharh Sudoor p.97-98

)بَاب ملاقاة الْأَرْوَاح للْمَيت إِذا خرجت روحه وإجتماعهم بِهِ وسؤالهم لَهُ(

وَأخرج آدم بن أبي إِيَاس فِي تَفْسِيره حَدثنَا الْمُبَارك بن فضَالة عَن الْحسن قَالَ قَالَ رَسُول الله صلى الله عَلَيْهِ وَسلم إِذا مَاتَ العَبْد تلقى روحه أَرْوَاح الْمُؤمنِينَ فَيَقُولُونَ لَهُ مَا فعل فلَان فَإِذا قَالَ مَاتَ قبلي قَالُوا ذهب بِهِ إِلَى أمه الهاوية فبئست الْأُم وبئست المربية

وَأخرج إِبْنِ أبي الدُّنْيَا عَن سعيد بن جُبَير قَالَ إِذا مَاتَ الْمَيِّت إستقبله وَلَده كَمَا يسْتَقْبل الْغَائِب

وَأخرج عَن ثَابت الْبنانِيّ قَالَ بلغنَا أَن الْمَيِّت إِذا مَاتَ إحتوشه أَهله وأقاربه الَّذين قد تقدموه من الْمَوْتَى فَلَهو أفرح بهم وَلَهُم أفرح بِهِ من الْمُسَافِر إِذا قدم إِلَى أَهله

وَأخرج عَن عبيد بن عُمَيْر قَالَ إِذا مَاتَ الْمَيِّت تَلَقَّتْهُ الْأَرْوَاح يستخبرونه كَمَا يستخبر الرَّاكِب مَا فعل فلَان وَفُلَان

Working in a supermarket and scanning alcohol

jknfatawa1 Finance
Working in a supermarket and scanning alcohol

19th June 2015

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: I wanted to know if it is considered Harām to scan alcohol and other Harām products such as pork etc, whilst working at a supermarket as a checkout assistant/ cashier. Are the earnings considered Harām too? It is really hard finding any sort of job nowadays, would I have to leave it?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

In reference to your query, your income will not be considered Harām (unlawful) in its entirety. Imām Abū Haneefah rahimahullah permitted the earning of a man who is employed to carry alcohol for a dhimmi[1] as opposed to his two prominent students, Imām Abū Yusuf rahimahullah and Imām Muhammad rahimahullah who consider it makrooh (disliked). Some scholars have preferred the second view on the grounds of Istihsān (legal preference), suggesting that it must be avoided altogether. The disparity of views is based on the prophetic Hadeeth which states, “Allāh has cursed the carrier of alcohol.” Both Imāms have adopted the apparent implication of the Hadeeth whilst Imām Abū Haneefah rahimahullah applies the prohibition to a Muslim carrying it with the intention of committing sin.[2] In other words, the carrier is cursed for intending to partake in the consumption of alcohol as was the general custom. It is apparent in your case that you only intend to check out the product by scanning, hence falls under the similar ruling of carrying without the intention of partaking in the sin.

If for argument sake scanning alcohol was forbidden on the grounds of the apparent wordings of the Hadeeth then it still does not render the entire earning unlawful because Imām Abū Haneefah rahimahullah views that unlawful earning mixed with lawful earning whereby separating both of them is difficult does not render the entire income unlawful provided that the unlawful income does not constitute majority part of the income.[3] Nevertheless, this is not the case and as indicated that your income is not affected.

This was to clarify the legal position on this matter but ethically speaking, such job does not befit the character of a true believer so whilst you are working there, seeking for an alternative employment that does not entail handling unlawful product should be your long-term aim.

 [Allãh Knows Best]

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] A dhimmi is a non-Muslim living in an Islamic state who pays tax to the state. In return the state gives him security and the freedom to practice his religion.

[2] Durrul Mukhtar wa Raddul Muhtar Kitab al-Hadhr wal Ibahat, Bab Istibra wa Ghairihi, p. 562 vol 9

(وَ) جَازَ تَعْمِيرُ كَنِيسَةٍ وَ (حَمْلُ خَمْرِ ذِمِّيٍّ) بِنَفْسِهِ أَوْ دَابَّتِهِ (بِأَجْرٍ) لَا عَصْرُهَا لِقِيَامِ الْمَعْصِيَةِ بِعَيْنِهِ.

(قَوْلُهُ وَحَمْلُ خَمْرِ ذِمِّيٍّ)  قَالَ الزَّيْلَعِيُّ: وَهَذَا عِنْدَهُ وَقَالَا هُوَ مَكْرُوهٌ ” لِأَنَّهُ – عَلَيْهِ الصَّلَاةُ وَالسَّلَامُ – «لَعَنَ فِي الْخَمْرِ عَشَرَةً وَعَدَّ مِنْهَا حَامِلَهَا» وَلَهُ أَنَّ الْإِجَارَةَ عَلَى الْحَمْلِ وَهُوَ لَيْسَ بِمَعْصِيَةٍ، وَلَا سَبَبَ لَهَا وَإِنَّمَا تَحْصُلُ الْمَعْصِيَةُ بِفِعْلِ فَاعِلٍ مُخْتَارٍ، وَلَيْسَ الشُّرْبُ مِنْ ضَرُورَاتِ الْحَمْلِ، لِأَنَّ حَمْلَهَا قَدْ يَكُونُ لِلْإِرَاقَةِ أَوْ لِلتَّخْلِيلِ، فَصَارَ كَمَا إذَا اسْتَأْجَرَهُ لِعَصْرِ الْعِنَبِ أَوْ قَطْعِهِ وَالْحَدِيثُ مَحْمُولٌ عَلَى الْحَمْلِ الْمَقْرُونِ بِقَصْدِ الْمَعْصِيَةِ اهـ زَادَ فِي النِّهَايَةِ وَهَذَا قِيَاسٌ وَقَوْلُهُمَا اسْتِحْسَانٌ، ثُمَّ قَالَ الزَّيْلَعِيُّ: وَعَلَى هَذَا الْخِلَافِ لَوْ آجَرَهُ دَابَّةً لِيَنْقُلَ عَلَيْهَا الْخَمْرَ أَوْ آجَرَهُ نَفْسَهُ لِيَرْعَى لَهُ الْخَنَازِيرَ يَطِيبُ لَهُ الْأَجْرُ عِنْدَهُ وَعِنْدَهُمَا يُكْرَهُ.

Also see Bahr Raiq Kitabūl Karahiyyat, p. 372 vol 8

[3] Durrul Mukhtar wa Raddul Muhtar Kitāb az-Zakāt, bāb Zakāt al-Ghanam, p. 217 vol 3

(وَلَوْ خَلَطَ السُّلْطَانُ الْمَالَ الْمَغْصُوبَ بِمَالِهِ مَلَكَهُ فَتَجِبُ الزَّكَاةُ فِيهِ وَيُورَثُ عَنْهُ) ؛ لِأَنَّ الْخَلْطَ اسْتِهْلَاكٌ إذَا لَمْ يُمْكِنْ تَمْيِيزٌ عِنْدَ أَبِي حَنِيفَةَ، وَقَوْلُهُ أَرْفَقُ إذْ قَلَّمَا يَخْلُو مَالٌ عَنْ غَصْبٍ،

Fatawa Hindiyyah Kitāb al-Karahiyyat, bāb al-Bai alItiyām, p. 444 vol 5

وَالثَّانِي إنْ عَلِمَ أَنَّ الْمَالَ الْحَرَامَ بِعَيْنِهِ قَائِمٌ إلَّا أَنَّهُ اخْتَلَطَ بِالْغَيْرِ بِحَيْثُ لَا يُمْكِنُ التَّمْيِيزُ عَنْهُ فَإِنَّ عَلَى أَصْلِ أَبِي حَنِيفَةَ – رَحِمَهُ اللَّهُ تَعَالَى – بِالْخَلْطِ يَدْخُلُ فِي مِلْكِهِ إلَّا أَنَّهُ لَا يَنْبَغِي أَنْ يَشْتَرِيَ مِنْهُ حَتَّى يَرْضَى الْخَصْمُ بِدَفْعِ الْعِوَضِ فَإِنْ اشْتَرَاهُ يَدْخُلُ فِي مِلْكِهِ مَعَ الْكَرَاهَةِ

Calculating Zakāt on Stocks

jknfatawa1 Zakat & Charity

15th June 2015

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: My question is about Zakāt for shops, like book stores, general stores, medical stores etc. First question is, is Zakāt payable on inventory in the shop or income of the shop?

Secondly, if it is on inventory or “goods for sale” which goes up and down every month plus it is not possible to calculate the exact value of items then how to give Zakāt?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

In reference to your query, Zakāt is calculated on the inventory (current market) value of the business stocks. If it is the case where the market value fluctuates throughout the year then the simplest method to calculate the amount of Zakāt would be to evaluate the current market value towards the end of the lunar year. To illustrate this, for instance, the market value of a particular item was £100 at the beginning of Ramadhān 2014. The market value then increased to £150 by Ramadhān 2015 then the Zakāt will be calculated on the value of £150. In short, the market value at the end of the year when Zakāt is due is considered and not the fluctuating value throughout the year.

[Allāh Knows Best]

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department