Author: jknfatawa1

Does Ear drops Break the Fast?

jknfatawa1 Fasting

25th April 2016

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question. Does ear drops break the Fast?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the Name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

Most of the classical Hanafi works consider applying medicine or oil into the ears to break the fast because it was assumed in those days that the ear canal was directly linked with the brain (whilst some asserted the cavity even reaching to the stomach), inevitably causing the medicine or oil to reach the brain (or stomach).[1] As a point of principle, anything reaching the brain breaches the Fast just as a substance reaches the stomach or intestine does so through its normal channel.[2] However, contemporary scholars such as Shaykh Khalid Saifullah Rahmani and others are not in full agreement with this ruling because modern medical research suggests that there is no direct link between the ear and the brain (unless the eardrum is perforated – punctured with a hole which is seldom the case), even though he suggests making Qadha as a precaution.[3] Nevertheless, a fasting person is not obliged to make Qadha by inserting eardrops into the ear and the fast is justifiably valid.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

 

[1] Durrul Mukhtar wa Shāmi Kitāb Sawm, Bāb Ma yufsidu Sawm wa ma la Yufsidu p. 367 vol 3

وَفَصَّلَ فِي الْخَانِيَّةِ بِأَنَّهُ إنْ دَخَلَ لَا يُفْسِدُ وَإِنْ أَدْخَلَهُ يَفْسُدُ فِي الصَّحِيحِ؛ لِأَنَّهُ وَصَلَ إلَى الْجَوْفِ بِفِعْلِهِ فَلَا يُعْتَبَرُ فِيهِ صَلَاحُ الْبَدَنِ، وَمِثْلُهُ فِي الْبَزَّازِيَّةِ وَاسْتَظْهَرَهُ فِي الْفَتْحِ وَالْبُرْهَانِ شُرُنْبُلَالِيَّةٌ مُلَخَّصًا. وَالْحَاصِلُ الِاتِّفَاقُ عَلَى الْفِطْرِ بِصَبِّ الدُّهْنِ وَعَلَى عَدَمِهِ بِدُخُولِ الْمَاءِ.

Hidayah Kitābus Sawm Bāb Ma yujib Qadha wa Kaffarāh p. 123 vol 1  (Maktab-e-Shamila)

” ومن احتقن أو استعط أو أقطر في أذنه أفطر ” لقوله صلى الله عليه وسلم ” الفطر مما دخل ولوجود معنى الفطر وهو وصول ما فيه صلاح البدن إلى الجوف

[2] Fatawa hindiyyah Kitāb Sawm Bāb Ma yufsidu Sawm wa ma la Yufsidu p. 204 vol 1

وَفِي دَوَاءِ الْجَائِفَةِ وَالْآمَّةِ أَكْثَرُ الْمَشَايِخِ عَلَى أَنَّ الْعِبْرَةَ لِلْوُصُولِ إلَى الْجَوْفِ وَالدِّمَاغِ لَا لِكَوْنِهِ رَطْبًا أَوْ يَابِسًا

[3] Jadeed Fiqhi Ml Khalid p. 186 vol 1

Does Smear Test Break the Fast?

jknfatawa1 Fasting
Does Smear Test Break the Fast?

25th April 2016

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question. What is the ruling on smear test breaking the Fast?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the Name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

During the process of a smear test, an instrument called a speculum is inserted to expand the walls of a woman’s vagina. A small soft brush is then inserted to extract some cells from the surface of the cervix for examination purpose.[1] Clearly, the purpose of this procedure is to collect a substance as opposed to inserting something inside e.g. medicine. The classical jurists understood the vaginal passage to be a valid channel (manfadh mu’tabirah) that assumingly leads to the intestine or stomach; a valid cavity which breaks the fast if anything reaches to either of the two places. For this reason, they ruled that inserting a finger into the vaginal area lubricated with a substance like water or oil breaks the fast due to the substance remaining inside the area.[2]

The classical jurists ruled as such then based on the available information at the time. Modern medical research has discovered that there is no connection between the vagina and the intestines, rather the vaginal tract connects to the uterus, separate from the intestine. Hence, a smear test should not break the fast irrespective of whether it is lubricated or not.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] For more details visit http://www.nhs.uk/Conditions/Cervical-screening-test/Pages/Introduction.aspx

[2] Fatawa Hindiyyah Kitāb Sawm Bāb Ma yufsidu Sawm wa ma la Yufsidu p. 204 vol 1

وَلَوْ أَدْخَلَ أُصْبُعَهُ فِي اسْتِهِ أَوْ الْمَرْأَةُ فِي فَرْجِهَا لَا يَفْسُدُ، وَهُوَ الْمُخْتَارُ إلَّا إذَا كَانَتْ مُبْتَلَّةً بِالْمَاءِ أَوْ الدُّهْنِ فَحِينَئِذٍ يَفْسُدُ لِوُصُولِ الْمَاءِ أَوْ الدُّهْنِ هَكَذَا فِي الظَّهِيرِيَّةِ.

Durrul Mukhtar wa Shāmi Kitāb Sawm Bāb Ma yufsidu Sawm wa ma la Yufsidu p. 397 vol 2

(أَوْ أَدْخَلَ أُصْبُعَهُ الْيَابِسَةَ فِيهِ) أَيْ دُبُرِهِ أَوْ فَرْجِهَا وَلَوْ مُبْتَلَّةً فَسَدَ

(قَوْلُهُ: وَلَوْ مُبْتَلَّةً فَسَدَ) لِبَقَاءِ شَيْءٍ مِنْ الْبِلَّةِ فِي الدَّاخِلِ وَهَذَا لَوْ أَدْخَلَ الْأُصْبُعَ إلَى مَوْضِعِ الْمِحْقَنَةِ كَمَا يُعْلَمُ مِمَّا بَعْدَهُ قَالَ وَمَحَلُّهُ إذَا كَانَ ذَاكِرًا لِلصَّوْمِ وَإِلَّا فَلَا فَسَادَ كَمَا فِي الْهِنْدِيَّةِ

Utilizing Unlawful Wealth

jknfatawa1 Zakat & Charity
Utilizing Unlawful Wealth

2nd March 2016

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: What is the legal ruling on paying Zakāt from unlawful income such as benefit fraud? Is it permissible to utilize it for their own needs and if not, then how should one dispose of it?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

Regarding the above query, taking unlawful advantage of the benefit welfare system in the UK is not permitted and sinful. As a general principle, Zakāt is never calculated upon unlawful earnings and hence, subjected to a separate legal ruling. However, the nature of the query requires an elaborated answer since other perspectives must be taken into consideration. To explain, anyone who does not possess any lawful income apart from the above then Islamically they don’t own that wealth. This income falls into the category of khabeeth (unlawful) according to the Fuqaha terminology, and Khabeeth wealth is not Zakātable even if it reaches the Nisāb level.[1] The money must be returned to the government by contacting the relevant agency. Should this prove impossible then as a final resort it must be given away to the neediest people without the intention of reward with the purpose of disposing of it.[2] Alternatively, some scholars have allowed using Khabeeth wealth to fund non-Islamic public welfare projects.[3] Such projects may include sports centres, health research projects etc.

If the above unlawful income is mixed with other personal lawful earnings then there are two scenarios. If both lawful and unlawful are separable, then the unlawful income must be separated and utilized as explained above and Zakāt becomes payable on the lawful portion if it fulfils the criteria of Zakāt that is. If the mixture of both are inseparable, in that calculating the unlawful amount from the lawful one is not possible and both combined reach the Nisāb level then Zakāt become payable if the majority of income is lawful as ownership is now established in this case according to Imām Abū Haneefah rahimahullah. In the case where the majority is unlawful then Zakāt won’t be calculated and all of it must be disposed of as explained above.[4] It must be noted here that Imām Sāhib’s rahimahullah ruling is based on determining the legality of Zakāt in such a predicament and should not be misconstrued where a person justifies in benefiting from unlawful earnings. One still bears the burden of sin of earning even a small quantity of Harām income.

[Allāh Knows Best]

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] Al-Shāmi Durrul Mukhtar wa hashiyah Ibn Abideen, Book of Zakāt, Bāb Zakāt al-Ghanam, p 218 vol 3

(قَوْلُهُ: كَمَا لَوْ كَانَ الْكُلُّ خَبِيثًا) فِي الْقُنْيَةِ لَوْ كَانَ الْخَبِيثُ نِصَابًا لَا يَلْزَمُهُ الزَّكَاةُ؛ لِأَنَّ الْكُلَّ وَاجِبُ التَّصَدُّقِ عَلَيْهِ فَلَا يُفِيدُ إيجَابَ التَّصَدُّقِ بِبَعْضِهِ

[2] Al-Shāmi Durrul Mukhtar wa hashiyah Ib Abideen, Book of Hadhr wal Ibāhat, Fsl fil Bai, p 553 vol 9

لَوْ مَاتَ رَجُلٌ وَكَسْبُهُ مِنْ ثَمَنِ الْبَاذَقِ وَالظُّلْمِ أَوْ أَخْذِ الرِّشْوَةِ تَعُودُ الْوَرَثَةُ وَلَا يَأْخُذُونَ مِنْهُ شَيْئًا وَهُوَ الْأَوْلَى لَهُمْ وَيَرُدُّونَهُ عَلَى أَرْبَابِهِ إنْ عَرَفُوهُمْ، وَإِلَّا يَتَصَدَّقُوا بِهِ؛ لِأَنَّ سَبِيلَ الْكَسْبِ الْخَبِيثِ التَّصَدُّقُ إذَا تَعَذَّرَ الرَّدُّ

[3] Shaykh Khalid Saifullah Rahmāni, Kitābul Fatāwa, p. 308, vol5

[4] Al-Shāmi Durrul Mukhtar wa hashiyah Ib Abideen, Book of Zakāt, Bāb Zakāt al-Ghanam, p 217-8 vol 3

(وَلَوْ خَلَطَ السُّلْطَانُ الْمَالَ الْمَغْصُوبَ بِمَالِهِ مَلَكَهُ فَتَجِبُ الزَّكَاةُ فِيهِ وَيُورَثُ عَنْهُ) ؛ لِأَنَّ الْخَلْطَ اسْتِهْلَاكٌ إذَا لَمْ يُمْكِنْ تَمْيِيزٌ عِنْدَ أَبِي حَنِيفَةَ، وَقَوْلُهُ أَرْفَقُ إذْ قَلَّمَا يَخْلُو مَالٌ عَنْ غَصْبٍ، وَهَذَا إذَا كَانَ لَهُ مَالٌ غَيْرُ مَا اسْتَهْلَكَهُ بِالْخَلْطِ مُنْفَصِلٌ عَنْهُ يُوَفِّي دَيْنَهُ وَإِلَّا فَلَا زَكَاةَ، كَمَا لَوْ كَانَ الْكُلُّ خَبِيثًا كَمَا فِي النَّهْرِ عَنْ الْحَوَاشِي السَّعْدِيَّةِ.

(قَوْلُهُ: بِمَالِهِ) مُتَعَلِّقٌ بِخَلَطَ، وَأَمَّا لَوْ خَلَطَهُ بِمَغْصُوبٍ آخَرَ فَلَا زَكَاةَ فِيهِ كَمَا يَذْكُرُهُ فِي قَوْلِهِ كَمَا لَوْ كَانَ الْكُلُّ خَبِيثًا (قَوْلُهُ: لِأَنَّ الْخَلْطَ اسْتِهْلَاكٌ) أَيْ بِمَنْزِلَتِهِ مَنْ حَيْثُ إنَّ حَقَّ الْغَيْرِ يَتَعَلَّقُ بِالذِّمَّةِ لَا بِالْأَعْيَانِ ط

(قَوْلُهُ: مُنْفَصِلٌ عَنْهُ) الَّذِي فِي النَّهْرِ عَنْ الْحَوَاشِي: مَحَلُّ مَا ذَكَرُوهُ مَا إذَا كَانَ لَهُ مَالٌ غَيْرُ مَا اسْتَهْلَكَهُ بِالْخَلْطِ يُفْصَلُ عَنْهُ فَلَا يُحِيطُ الدَّيْنُ بِمَالِهِ. أَيْ يُفْصَلُ عَنْهُ بِمَا يَبْلُغُ نِصَابًا

مَنْ مَلَكَ أَمْوَالًا غَيْرَ طَيِّبَةٍ أَوْ غَصَبَ أَمْوَالًا وَخَلَطَهَا مَلَكَهَا بِالْخَلْطِ وَيَصِيرُ ضَامِنًا، وَإِنْ لَمْ يَكُنْ لَهُ سِوَاهَا نِصَابٌ فَلَا زَكَاةَ عَلَيْهِ فِيهَا وَإِنْ بَلَغَتْ نِصَابًا؛ لِأَنَّهُ مَدْيُونٌ وَمَالُ الْمَدْيُونِ لَا يَنْعَقِدُ سَبَبًا لِوُجُوبِ الزَّكَاةِ عِنْدَنَا. اهـ.

Husband Passed Away Leaving Behind a Wife and Siblings

jknfatawa1 Inheritance

6th February 2016

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: Husband passed away leaving behind only a wife and his siblings; brothers and sisters. He has no parents and no children so how will his estate be distributed Islamically?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

In reference to your case scenario, after discharging all funeral expenses, clearing all outstanding debts and executing one-third of the will from the deceased’s wealth (that is if he made a will), whatever remains from his estate will be distributed between his beneficiaries starting with his wife, one brother and three sisters. The wife will first receive her share of inheritance which is 1/4 of the estate. The remainder 3/4 will be shared out between his siblings from which the brother will receive double the share of each sister.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

Estate Distribution Between Wife, Three Sons and Five Daughters

jknfatawa1 Inheritance

15th January 2016

 

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: Could you please help me on this matter. I’ve received an inheritance of £247,500 that needs to be allocated between these inheritors; Wife, 3 sons and 5 daughters. Kindly explain to us how much does each heir receive from the above amount according to the Islamic legal principles?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

In reference to your query, if the total above-stated amount remains after discharging all funeral expenses, clearing all outstanding debts and executing one-third as a will from the deceased’s wealth (that is if he made a will), then the total estate will be divided by 88 shares, from which 1/8th of dividend is allocated to the wife first. The residue portion thereafter must be distributed between the children; each son receiving double the share of a daughter. The dividend per heir is illustrated in the table below.

 

ALLOCATION OF DIVIDEND PER BENEFICIARY
Eligible Beneficiaries Share Amount
Wife 1/8th (11) £247,500 ÷ 8 = £30,937.50
  Remainder 77 Shares to be distributed between the children £247,500 – £30,937.50 = £216,562.50

£216,562.50 ÷ 77 = 2,812.50
Son 1 14 £39,375.00
Son 2 14 £39,375.00
Son 3 14 £39,375.00
Daughter 1 7 £19,687.50
Daughter 2 7 £19,687.50
Daughter 3 7 £19,687.50
Daughter 4 7 £19,687.50
Daughter 5 7 £19,687.50
Total 77 £247,500

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

Evading Tax

jknfatawa1 Lawful & Unlawful
Evading Tax

19th December 2015

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: A family business based in England is involved in supplying and fitting kitchen units, as well as providing other services. The family is Muslim. The business, called X-Y (not real name), has been operating for many years. Although the business operates under the name X-Y, the actual incorporated company name is not X-Y. The actual incorporated company and its registered number is not displayed on letter heads used by X-Y. Over the years several companies have been registered from the same address from which X-Y operates by the same businessmen; these companies have under gone compulsory strike off by Companies House after a relatively short period of time as result of not filing company accounts. This is a deliberate ploy of the businessmen running X-Y to avoid paying corporate/ company taxes. In England a new company does not need to submit annual financial accounts for up to 21 months from time of incorporation. The company X-Y is not VAT registered either. The customers of X-Y are told to pay for the kitchen units and other services provided in cash or by direct bank transfer in to the personal bank accounts of the businessmen running X-Y. Again, this is done to avoid paying taxes. The businessmen running X-Y have been avoiding tax for years on a large scale. In the U.K. the state services provided and the welfare system (free education, free national health service, police service, fire service, whole spectrum of benefits etc.) are dependant on individuals and companies paying taxes. If every company in the U.K. was to avoid paying tax then the whole system would collapse.

 In the U.K. it is a criminal offence to avoid paying tax, corporate tax, VAT, personal income tax etc. In the case of X-Y, both the operating business and company registration is in England hence liable for U.K. tax and subject to company law of England and Wales.

 My questions are, from an Islamic perspective:

Q1. What is the status of earnings acquired by deliberately cheating the tax system and thereby avoiding payment of taxes which are due under U.K. law?

Q2. What are the Islamic implications for a Muslim and his family who knowingly and actively makes a living via illegal means such as tax avoidance?

Q3. If the businessmen involved wish to repent and make their earnings halal what needs to be done with earnings already acquired by illegal means, i.e., earning acquired by tax avoidance?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

A1: In reference to the above case scenario, to deliberately evade tax in the manner as explained above is unwarranted Islamically. This is deceiving and could potentially lead to sever repercussions if apprehended, such as humiliation. The Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam once said. “It is not befitting for a believer to humiliate himself.” The companions enquired, “How does one humiliate himself?” He replied, “To expose oneself to a calamity beyond his capability.”[1]  This suggests that every Muslim must be cautious in their dealings and avoid all those situations that inevitably leads to disgrace and humiliation. It must be made clear that paying off one’s financial obligation i.e. taxes falls in the category of expenditure which does not affect the status of the income Islamically as long as one earns through lawful means. Supplying and fitting kitchen units is a lawful business in Islām, but evading tax does not render the income unlawful. Receiving and expending (or utilizing) are two separate issues.

A2: As indicated above that evading tax does not render the income unlawful, except it leads to humiliation and sin. The Islamic implications that follow is they become guilty of deception and breaching of one’s covenant with the law. Allāh I gives a decisive command in the Noble Qur’an, “O Believers! Fulfil your oaths.”[2]

A3: Their income is already permissible in the first place. They must repent and pay towards their financial obligation i.e. pay their taxes.

 

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

[1] Sunnan Ibn Majah No: 4016

عَنْ حُذَيْفَةَ، قَالَ: قَالَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ – صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ -: “لَا يَنْبَغِي لِلْمُؤْمِنِ أَنْ يُذِلَّ نَفْسَهُ” قَالُوا: وَكَيْفَ يُذِلُّ نَفْسَهُ؟ قَالَ: يَتَعَرَّضُ مِنْ الْبَلَاءِ لِمَا لَا يُطِيقُهُ”

[2] Sūrah al-Māidah (5:1)

False Eyelashes

jknfatawa1 Women
False Eyelashes

7th December 2015

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question.  What is the ruling of wearing false eyelashes? To permanently attach fake eyelashes and the validity of wudhu.

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

It is permissible to attach fake eyelashes provided that they are not from human or swine hair. It is however extremely disliked And sinful when worn to draw unwanted attention by exposing their beauty in front of non-mahram males. Other forms such as animal hair or synthetic fibre are permissible.[3] Whether to remove the fake eyelashes or not during wudhu would depend on your natural eyelashes. The scholars state that washing the skin beneath the eyelashes during wudhu is necessary only if the natural eyelashes are so fine that the skin is visible, so that the water reaches the skin. If they are thick, that the skin is not visible then it is not be necessary.[4] You must therefore determine whether removing the attached fake eyelashes is necessary or not based on this principle.

[1] Badai Sanai  Kit ābus Salāh Fasl fi kaifiyyati Ghuslil Mayyit, p. 309 vol 2

ثُمَّ يُوَضَّأُ وُضُوءَهُ لِلصَّلَاةِ لِمَا رُوِيَ عَنْ النَّبِيِّ – صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ – أَنَّهُ قَالَ «لِلَّاتِي غَسَّلْنَ ابْنَتَهُ ابْدَأْنَ بِمَيَامِنِهَا، وَمَوَاضِعِ الْوُضُوءِ مِنْهَا» ؛ وَلِأَنَّ هَذَا سُنَّةُ الِاغْتِسَالِ فِي حَالَةِ الْحَيَاةِ فَكَذَا  بَعْدَ الْمَمَاتِ

[2] Hindiyah Kitabu Taharat Bāb al Ghusl, p. 16 vol 1

وَإِنْ كَانَ عَلَى ظَاهِرِ بَدَنِهِ جِلْدُ سَمَكٍ أَوْ خُبْزٌ مَمْضُوغٌ قَدْ جَفَّ فَاغْتَسَلَ وَلَمْ يَصِلْ الْمَاءُ إلَى مَا تَحْتَهُ لَا يَجُوزُ

[3] Hindiyah Kitabu Karahiyyah Bābuz Ziyynah, p. 438  vol 5

وَلَا بَأْسَ لِلْمَرْأَةِ أَنْ تَجْعَلَ فِي قُرُونِهَا وَذَوَائِبهَا شَيْئًا مِنْ الْوَبَرِ كَذَا فِي فَتَاوَى قَاضِي خَانْ

[4] Durrul Muktar & Ibn Ābideen as-Shāmi Kitabut Taharat, Arkanul Wudhu, p. 211 vol 1

(لَا غَسْلُ بَاطِنِ الْعَيْنَيْنِ) وَالْأَنْفِ وَالْفَمِ وَأُصُولِ شَعْرِ الْحَاجِبَيْنِ وَاللِّحْيَةِ وَالشَّارِبِ

يُحْمَلُ هَذَا عَلَى مَا إذَا كَانَا كَثِيفَيْنِ، أَمَّا إذَا بَدَتْ الْبَشَرَةُ فَيَجِبُ كَمَا يَأْتِي لَهُ قَرِيبًا عَنْ الْبُرْهَانِ

Nail Varnish

jknfatawa1 Women
Nail Varnish

7th December 2015

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question. Are we allowed to scrape off nail varnish from a deceased person?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

In general principle, the rules pertaining to bathing a deceased person do not differ from a living person. This is why scholars state that the Sunnah method of bathing during one’s lifetime also applies to the same individual when passing away.[1] The obligatory acts therefore would apply, that is, anything left on the limb preventing water reaching to the skin must be removed for the Ghusl to be complete.[2] In this regard, it is not only permissible but necessary to remove the nail varnish from the deceased person for the ghusl to be complete.

[1] Badai Sanai  Kit ābus Salāh Fasl fi kaifiyyati Ghuslil Mayyit, p. 309 vol 2

ثُمَّ يُوَضَّأُ وُضُوءَهُ لِلصَّلَاةِ لِمَا رُوِيَ عَنْ النَّبِيِّ – صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ – أَنَّهُ قَالَ «لِلَّاتِي غَسَّلْنَ ابْنَتَهُ ابْدَأْنَ بِمَيَامِنِهَا، وَمَوَاضِعِ الْوُضُوءِ مِنْهَا» ؛ وَلِأَنَّ هَذَا سُنَّةُ الِاغْتِسَالِ فِي حَالَةِ الْحَيَاةِ فَكَذَا  بَعْدَ الْمَمَاتِ

[2] Hindiyah Kitabu Taharat Bāb al Ghusl, p. 16 vol 1

وَإِنْ كَانَ عَلَى ظَاهِرِ بَدَنِهِ جِلْدُ سَمَكٍ أَوْ خُبْزٌ مَمْضُوغٌ قَدْ جَفَّ فَاغْتَسَلَ وَلَمْ يَصِلْ الْمَاءُ إلَى مَا تَحْتَهُ لَا يَجُوزُ

A Woman Menstruating During Hajj

jknfatawa1 Hajj & Umrah

30th October 2015

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: I intend to perform Hajj Tamattu and want to know what should I do if I menstruate before or after I enter into Ihrām. If before the 8th Dhul Hijjah, I still menstruate then how should I come out of Ihrām? If I cannot complete Umrah because of menstruation then should I cut my hair to come out of Ihrām? Because of menstruation, I could not complete Umrah before the 8th Dhul Hijjah, what type of Hajj must I make the intention of? Can I still make intention for Hajj of Tamattu?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

Menstrual related queries for women during Hajj are very common and can be somewhat complexed and confusing if not understood properly. There are number of scenarios in your question, from which the most common ones are outlined below so to give you a basic understanding of what to do in each given case.

You make the intention to perform Tamattu Hajj but envisage the possibility of either;

  1. Menstruate before putting on your Ihrām and will finish before the 8th of Dhul Hijjah (which is the 1st day of Hajj), for instance, you stop on the 7th, or
  2. Menstruate after putting on your Ihrām but will stop before the 8th of Dhul Hijjah, or
  3. Menstruate before or after your Ihrām and will most likely extend beyond the 8th, eventually entering into the actual days of Hajj.

In scenario 1 & 2 the ruling is straight forward, as in to simply remain in the state of Ihrām until you finish menstruating and thereafter have a bath and perform Umrah as Umrah can be performed any time before the 8th Dhul-Hijjah. After coming out of the Umrah Ihrām, the Ihrām intention for Hajj must be renewed on the night of 8th before Fajr.

The third scenario, more so relevant to your case is as follows,

  1. If your menses starts after Ihrām of Umrah then you must come out of Ihrām by cutting your hair. This is known as rafdh – meaning abandoning or breaking your Umrah before completing its ritual acts. As a result of coming out of Ihrām of Umrah earlier, you must give a Damm (sacrifice a sheep or goat) and also make Qadha of the Umrah after completing your Hajj.[1]
  2. In the case where you menstruate before putting on your Ihrām of Tamattu (with the likely chance of extending beyond the 8th) then I would suggest you make the intention of Hajj of Ifrād instead. Ifrād means intending to perform Hajj alone, thus no need to worry about performing Umrah. The moment you reach Makkah (after making the intention of Ifrād) you will remain in the state of Ihrām until the 10th of Dhul-Hijjah. There is no penalty for missing the initial Tawāf Qudoom. For a mufrid (the one performing Ifrād) sacrificing an animal on the 10th of Dhul-Hijjah is not compulsory,[2] thus you may come out of Ihrām before that. But if you still intend to perform Tamattu then refer to the above.

 

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

[1] Fatawa Hindiyyah, Kitāb al-Manāsik, Bāb Izāfatul Ihrām ilal Ihrām p. 280 vol 1

وَلَوْ أَحْرَمَ بِالْعُمْرَةِ ثُمَّ بِالْحَجِّ وَلَمْ يَأْتِ بِشَيْءٍ مِنْ أَفْعَالِ الْعُمْرَةِ فَإِنَّهُ يَرْفُضُ الْعُمْرَةَ اتِّفَاقًا هَكَذَا فِي الْكَافِي فَإِنْ طَافَ لِعُمْرَتِهِ أَرْبَعَةَ أَشْوَاطٍ ثُمَّ أَحْرَمَ بِالْحَجِّ رَفَضَ الْحَجَّ بِلَا خِلَافٍ وَعَلَيْهِ دَمُ الرَّفْضِ أَيَّهُمَا رَفَضَهُ إلَّا أَنَّ فِي رَفْضِ الْعُمْرَةِ قَضَاءَهَا وَفِي رَفْضِ الْحَجِّ قَضَاءَهُ وَعُمْرَةً

Ibn Humām, Fathul Qadeer, Kitāb al-Hajj, p. 429 vol 2

وَفِي الصَّحِيحَيْنِ مِنْ «قَوْلِ عَائِشَةَ – رَضِيَ اللَّهُ عَنْهَا – يَا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ تَنْطَلِقُونَ بِحَجَّةٍ وَعُمْرَةٍ وَأَنْطَلِقُ بِحَجٍّ؟ فَأَمَرَ عَبْدَ الرَّحْمَنِ بْنَ أَبِي بَكْرٍ أَنْ يَخْرُجَ مَعَهَا إلَى التَّنْعِيمِ فَاعْتَمَرَتْ بَعْدَ الْحَجِّ»

[2] Fatawa Hindiyyah, Kitāb al-Manāsik, Bāb Kaifiyyatu Adāil Hajj p. 255 vol 1

ثُمَّ يَرْجِعُ إلَى مِنًى فَإِنْ كَانَ مَعَهُ نُسُكٌ ذَبَحَهُ، وَإِنْ لَمْ يَكُنْ فَلَا يَضُرُّهُ لِأَنَّهُ مُفْرِدٌ بِالْحَجِّ

Father Passed Away Leaving Behind His Wife, Three Sons and Five Daughters

jknfatawa1 Inheritance

26th October 2015

                                                                                               

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: My father has passed away and our mother is still alive. Mother owns her home and she has 8 children; 3 sons and 5 daughters. She has asked me to find out how this should be divided Islamically. I am finding it difficult to give her the right answer so please explain this clearly.

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

In reference to your case scenario, after discharging all funeral expenses, clearing all outstanding debts and executing one-third of the will from the deceased’s wealth (that is if he made a will), whatever remains from your father’s estate must be distributed among his legal heirs namely; his wife, sons and daughters. The first 1/8th of the total asset must be subtracted for his wife’s (your mother) share. Thereafter whatever remains must be divided by 11 shares between the children; each son inheriting double the share of each daughter.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department