Author: jknfatawa1

Iddah of a Woman Divorced Once

jknfatawa1 Divorce

                              21st January 2021

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: Is there any Iddah for that women whose husband only gave one Talaq? The Talaq is of such nature that he has made his mind not to take her back.

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer;

In reference to your query if a woman was given one talaq (after consummation) with the husband maintaining his intention of not taking her back she is required to sit in her iddah.[1] This is due the waiting period being stipulated previously when a woman is given a talaq regardless if he intends on taking her back or not. She thus remains in his Nikah until her Iddah of three menses expires.[2]

The above only applies if the marriage was consummated before divorcing her. If for some reason they are unable to consummate (e.g. due to an illness) and the wife receives one divorce before that then she is not required to sit her iddah.[3]

 

[Allāh Knows Best]

 

 

Written by:  Apa Gul-e-Maryam         Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

 

[1] Tabyeen Haqaiq, Kitab Haidh, Vol 2, Pg 251

الله – (هي استدامة القائم في العدة) أي الرجعة إبقاء النكاح على ما كان ما دامت في العدة؛ لأن النكاح قائم لقوله تعالى {وبعولتهن أحق بردهن} [البقرة: ٢٢٨] أي لهم حق الرجعة لا أن يكون لها أو للأجنبي حق فيكون البعل أولى

 

 

[2] Inayah Sharah Hidaya, Kitab Haidh, Vol 4, Pg 158

وإذا طلق الرجل امرأته تطليقة رجعية أو تطليقتين فله أن يراجعها في عدتها رضيت بذلك أو لم ترض) لقوله تعالى {فأمسكوهن بمعروف} [البقرة: ٢٣١] من غير فصل

 

 

[3] Muheet Al Burbani,Kitab Talaq, Vol 2, Pg 244

 

وإن كان لا يمكنه الوطء مع المانع حسا كالمريض أو المريضة التي لا يقدر الوطء منهما أو الصغير أو الصغيرة التي لا يتصور الجماع منهما فلا عدة لأنهما لا يتهمان ولم يوجد التسليم الذي أوجب العدة

 

Muheet Al Burbani,Kitab Talaq, Vol 2, Pg 244

ولا تجب عدة الطلاق قبل الدخول

 

COVID Vaccine: Halāl or Not?

jknfatawa1 Medical

8th January 2021

 

Question: With the rollout of the vaccines, is it permissible for Muslims to take it in spite of the certain speculations being circulated about it like altering the DNA, containing foetal cells and so on? Appreciate the clarity on the matter. 

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

The recent government’s rollout of the vaccine has created hope for some whilst for others, it has grown scepticism. Much of the confusion surrounding the vaccine is due to miss-information that is being widely circulated amongst people. There are three types of vaccines that have been rolled out, Pfizer, Moderna and the Oxford- AstraZeneca vaccine. Two doses are given as currently twelve weeks apart in the form of a jab in the upper arm. They work by stimulating the immune system to produce its own defence against the virus.  The most vulnerable and those of high risk are given the vaccine such as people above the age of 80, living in care homes and health care workers. The vaccines are known to carry some side effects but very mild for instance, fatigue, headache, sore arms due to the jab and aches and pains.[1]

The Pfizer and Moderna vaccine are not known to contain any animal ingredients such as gelatine or animal fat.[2] It is purely vegetarian and therefore Halāl and permissible to take. It is believed that this is also the similar case with the Oxford vaccine. It is however confirmed that it contains small traces of ethanol (0.002 g of per dose of 0.5 ml), but does not cause any noticeable effect.[3] We have discussed elsewhere that ethanol is not deemed impure as mostly it is derived from other than grapes and dates and is synthetically manufactured.[4] Some have argued that the vaccines contain foetal – cell lining from the aborted foetus. If this is the case then it does not render the vaccine Harām because the cell linings are so minute that they disappear leaving no traces behind like the case with alcohol converting into vinegar, thus permissible.[5]

We are not aware of any information that the vaccine alters the DNA. Even if it was the case then this is not to a significant degree in the way that it has been overly exaggerated. The vaccine has been manufactured to boost the body’s immune system in preparing it to repel the virus. It is true that the vaccine may cause side effects as highlighted above, however it is very remote. It depends on the individual’s health condition as some may have an allergic reaction towards a specific ingredient in the vaccine. This is the similar case with any other medication. If it is proven to be effective and its benefit outweighs its harms then a small harm can be endured to prevent a greater harm.[6] Hence, it still does not render it Harām.

A final note on this issue, there’s nothing wrong in someone feeling hesitant in taking the COVID vaccine. This is the individual’s right upon whom the vaccine cannot be forced. Where the problem lies is individuals advocating an anti-vaccine campaign to create fear mongering amongst people based on unsubstantiated evidences. The balance therefore is that if it contains no Harām ingredients then it is permissible to take. If someone chooses to refrain then that is their prerogative but to actively discourage Muslims from taking it by creating fear is not the best of solutions.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written and researched by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

 

[1] Coronavirus (COVID-19) vaccine – NHS (www.nhs.uk) (December 2020) [accessed 5th January 2020]

[2] Coronavirus (COVID-19) vaccine – NHS (www.nhs.uk) (December 2020) [accessed 5th January 2020]

[3]  Covid-19: What are the ingredients in the Oxford/AstraZeneca vaccine? – Cambridgeshire Live (cambridge-news.co.uk),  Information for UK recipients on COVID 19 Vaccine AstraZeneca – GOV.UK (www.gov.uk) [both accessed 6th January 2020]

 

[4] Mufti Abdul Waheed, (2020), Islamic Ruling on Alcohol Contained Products, available at Islamic-Rulling-on-Alcohol-Contained-Products.pdf (jknfatawa.co.uk)

 

[5] Fatawa Hindiyyah, Kitāb al-Tahārah, vol 1, p. 45

[الْفَصْلُ الْأَوَّلُ فِي تَطْهِيرِ الْأَنْجَاسِ]

(الْبَابُ السَّابِعُ فِي النَّجَاسَةِ وَأَحْكَامِهَا وَفِيهِ ثَلَاثَةُ فُصُولٍ)

(وَمِنْهَا) الِاسْتِحَالَةُ تَخَلَّلَ الْخَمْرُ فِي خَابِيَةٍ جَدِيدَةٍ طَهُرَتْ بِالِاتِّفَاقِ. كَذَا فِي الْقُنْيَةِ. الْخُبْزُ الَّذِي عُجِنَ بِالْخَمْرِ لَا يَطْهُرُ بِالْغَسْلِ وَلَوْ صُبَّ فِيهِ الْخَلُّ وَذَهَبَ أَثَرُهَا يَطْهُرُ. كَذَا فِي الظَّهِيرِيَّةِ.

الرَّغِيفُ إذَا أُلْقِيَ فِي الْخَمْرِ ثُمَّ صَارَ الْخَمْرُ خَلًّا فَالصَّحِيحُ أَنَّهُ طَاهِرٌ إذَا لَمْ يَبْقَ رَائِحَةُ الْخَمْرِ وَكَذَا فِي الْبَصَلِ إذَا أُلْقِيَ فِي الْخَمْرِ ثُمَّ تَخَلَّلَ؛ لِأَنَّ مَا فِيهِ مِنْ أَجْزَاءِ الْخَمْرِ صَارَ خَلًّا. هَكَذَا فِي فَتَاوَى قَاضِي خَانْ.

 

Muheet Burhani vol 1. p. 191

وقد ذكرنا أن من مذهب محمد رحمه الله أن النجس يصير طاهراً بالتغيير، يفتى فيه بقول محمد رحمه الله لمكان عموم البلوى

 

[6] Ibn Nujaym, Al-Ashabh wan Nazair, p. 74

يُتَحَمَّلُ الضَّرَرُ الْخَاصُّ؛ لِأَجْلِ دَفْعِ ضَرَرِ الْعَامِّ.

Contraceptive Pills and Menstrual Bleeding

jknfatawa1 Women

4th January 2021

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: I have a query regarding the combined pill form of contraception women take. This form of contraception requires to take the pill for 21 days and have a break from it for 7 days. During the 7 days one will experience a bleeding like a period (but not her actual period). I understand intercourse during menstruation time is not permitted. However, it is unclear to me whether this 7 day bleeding period would also come under the time sex is not permitted? Please could I have some clarification on this.

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer:

Thank you for your question. In regards to your query, the combined pill is taken as a form of contraception is a pill that prevents the ovaries from releasing an egg each month (ovulation). It also thickens the mucus in the neck of the womb, so it is harder for sperm to penetrate the womb and reach an egg. This form of contraception is said to be 99% effective when taken correctly. The pill is taken orally on a cycle of 21 days with a 7 day break in between. Breakthrough bleeding and spotting is very common with the pill.[1]

Breakthrough bleeding and spotting is a common side effect of such birth control pills. It is especially common in the first three months of using hormonal birth control. This could be due to the changes in the levels of hormones or the inconsistency of taking the pill etc. [2] It is therefore important to note that this breakthrough bleeding that happens during the 21 days of taking the pill cannot be disregarded Islamically as it affects the overall ruling of the period bleeding.

The general rule therefore would depend on whether you had a complete pure period of minimum 15 days before your next habitual bleeding.  If you had 15 days of no bleeding and then bled for 3 days or more then this will be considered as periods Islamically. It doesn’t matter whether the bleeding occurred during the 21 days or the 7 days. Hence, if this bleeding falls during the 7 days or the 21 days, intercourse will not be allowed. However, if less than 15 days of cleanliness have passed since the last period and one starts bleeding then this bleeding will be considered as istihadha – dysfunctional bleeding, during which intercourse is allowed.[3]

For illustration purpose, say someone has started taking the 21 days pill and on the first day saw bleeding and she has a habit of 5 days, so they finish their periods on day 5. After competing  the 21 days, they again bleed even if this is just spotting, and this spotting carries on for more than 3 days then Islamically this spotting will be considered as period as there has been a gap of 15 days of cleanliness. In this time, they will not be able to have intercourse.

Just say they start a proper bleed again when they start taking the pill, if this bleeding is within 10 days of the spotting happening then all the days will be considered as period. If the proper bleeding is after 10 days of the spotting then this bleeding will not be classed as period Islamically rather it will be considered as istihadha.[4]

 

 

[Allāh Knows Best]

 

 

Written by:  Apa Sajeda          Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam  

JKN Fatawa Department

 

 

[1] nhs.uk. 2020. Combined Pill. [online] Available at: <https://www.nhs.uk/conditions/contraception/combined-contraceptive-pill/> [Accessed 3 January 2021].

 

[2] Santos-Longhurst, A., 2019. Breakthrough Bleeding on The Pill: Causes, Diagnosis, And Stopping It. [online] Healthline. Available at: <https://www.healthline.com/health/womens-health/breakthrough-bleeding-on-the-pill> [Accessed 4 January 2021].

[3]Durrul Mukhtār wa hashiyah Ibn Ābideen Shāmi, Kitābul Taharah, Bāb Al-Haidh, vol 1 p. 298

قوله لا يمنع صوما إلخ) أي ولا قراءة ومس مصحف ودخول مسجد وكذا لا تمنع عن الطواف إذا أمنت من اللوث قهستاني عن الخزانة ط. مطلب في حكم وطء المستحاضة ومن بذكره نجاسة

(قوله وجماعا) ظاهره جوازه في حال سيلانه وإن لزم منه تلويث، وكذا هو ظاهر غيره من المتون والشروح وكذا قولهم: يجوز مباشرة الحائض فوق الإزار وإن لزم منه التلطخ بالدم، وتمامه في ط.

وأما ما في شرح المنية في الأنجاس من أن التلوث بالنجاسة مكروه فالظاهر حمله على ما إذا كان بلا عذر والوطء عذر، ألا ترى أنه يحل على القول بأن رطوبة الفرج نجسة مع أن فيه تلوثا بالنجاسة، فتخصيص الحل بوقت عدم السيلان يحتاج إلى نقل صريح ولم يوجد، بل قدمنا على شروح الهداية التصريح بأن حل الوطء بعد أكثر الحيض غير متوقف على الانقطاع فافهم.

 

Kasāni, Badā’i Sanāi, Kitāb al-Tahrah,  Fasl al-Haidh , vol 1 p. 41

أما الاستحاضة فهي ما انتقص عن أقل الحيض، وما زاد على أكثر الحيض، والنفاس، ثم المستحاضة نوعان مبتدأة، وصاحبة عادة والمبتدأة نوعان مبتدأة بالحيض، ومبتدأة بالحبل، وصاحبة العادة نوعان صاحبة العادة في الحيض، وصاحبة العادة في النفاس. أما) المبتدأة بالحيض، وهي التي ابتدئت بالدم، واستمر بها فالعشرة من أول الشهر حيض؛ لأن هذا دم في أيام الحيض، وأمكن جعله حيضا فيجعل حيضا، وما زاد على العشرة يكون استحاضة، لأنه لا مزيد للحيض على العشرة، وهكذا في كل شهر. وأما) صاحبة العادة في الحيض إذا كانت عادتها عشرة فزاد الدم عليها فالزيادة استحاضة، وإن كانت عادتها خمسة فالزيادة عليها حيض معها إلى تمام العشرة لما ذكرنا في المبتدأة بالحيض، وإن جاوز العشرة فعادتها حيض، وما زاد عليها استحاضة لقول النبي – صلى الله عليه وسلم – «المستحاضة تدع الصلاة أيام أقرائها» أي: أيام حيضها، ولأن ما رأت في أيامها حيض بيقين، وما زاد على العشرة استحاضة بيقين، وما بين ذلك متردد بين أن يلحق بما قبله فيكون حيضا، فلا تصلي، وبين أن يلحق بما بعده فيكون استحاضة فتصلي، فلا تترك الصلاة بالشك

 

[4] Fathul Qadeer, Kitāb al Taharāt, Bāb al Haydh , vol 1 pg 172

أَنَّ اسْتِيعَابَ الدَّمِ مُدَّةَ الْحَيْضِ لَيْسَ بِشَرْطٍ بِالْإِجْمَاعِ فَيُعْتَبَرُ أَوَّلُهُ وَآخِرُهُ كَالنِّصَابِ فِي بَابِ الزَّكَاةِ

وَرَوَى ابْنُ الْمُبَارَكِ عَنْ أَبِي حَنِيفَةَ أَنَّهُ يُعْتَبَرُ أَنْ يَكُونَ الدَّمُ فِي الْعَشْرِ ثَلَاثَةَ أَيَّامٍ وَهُوَ قَوْلُ زُفَرَ. وَرَوَى أَبُو يُوسُفَ عَنْهُ وَبِهِ أَخَذَ أَنَّ الطُّهْرَ إذَا كَانَ أَقَلَّ مِنْ خَمْسَةَ عَشَرَ لَا يُفْصَلُ. وَقِيلَ هُوَ آخِرُ أَقْوَالِ أَبِي حَنِيفَةَ وَعَلَيْهِ الْفَتْوَى.……… وَاخْتَلَفَ الْمَشَايِخُ عَلَى قَوْلِهِ فِيمَا إذَا اجْتَمَعَ طُهْرَانِ مُعْتَبَرَانِ وَصَارَ أَحَدُهُمَا حَيْضًا لِاسْتِوَاءِ الدَّمِ بِطَرَفَيْهِ حَتَّى صَارَ كَالدَّمِ الْمُتَوَالِي، فَقِيلَ يَتَعَدَّى حُكْمُهُ إلَى الطَّرَفِ الْأَخِيرِ حَتَّى يَصِيرَ الْكُلُّ حَيْضًا، وَقِيلَ لَا يَتَعَدَّى. قَالَ فِي الْمُحِيطِ: هُوَ الْأَصَحُّ. مِثَالُهُ: رَأَتْ يَوْمَيْنِ دَمًا وَثَلَاثَةً طُهْرًا وَيَوْمًا دَمًا وَثَلَاثَةً طُهْرًا وَيَوْمًا دَمًا فَعَلَى الْأَوَّلِ الْكُلُّ حَيْضٌ لِأَنَّ الطُّهْرَ الْأَوَّلَ دَمٌ لِاسْتِوَائِهِ بِدَمَيْهِ فَكَأَنَّهَا رَأَتْ سِتَّةً دَمًا وَأَرْبَعَةً طُهْرًا، وَعَلَى الثَّانِي السِّتَّةُ الْأُولَى حَيْضٌ فَقَطْ.

 

Can the Wife Spend Her Money Without her Husband’s Permission?

jknfatawa1 Marriage
Can the Wife Spend Her Money Without her Husband’s Permission?

28th December 2020

 

Question: Can I spend my own money without my husband’s permission? I’ve heard from scholars say that the woman’s property belongs to her, and her husband can’t object to it, but some Hadīths which I found confused me. So, I want to be sure about this ruling and don’t want to be sinful. I know a wife must obey her husband but do I have to obey him in this matter too? The report narrated from Umar ibn Shuayb from his father from his grandfather that the Messenger of Allāh (peace and blessings of Allāh be upon him) said in a khutbah (sermon) he gave: “It is not permissible for a woman to give anything except with the permission of her husband.”

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

In reference to your query, the Hadīth you have reported is an authentic report transmitted in Sunnan Nasai[1] and Sunnan of Abu Dawood.[2] There is also another prophetic report which states that her husband owns her property where The Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam said, “No woman is permitted in any matter (i.e. charity or gift) when her husband owns her honour (ismat).”[3]

The word ‘matter’ refers to her giving charity or a gift.[4] These reports suggest that a woman is not permitted to spend in charity without her husband’s permission because he has rights over her. This however conflicts with another famous report mentioned in Bukhari from Sayyidunā Abdullah Ibn Abbas radhiyallahu anhu where the Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam after finishing the Eid Salāh gathered the womenfolk separately admonishing them and commanding them to give in charity. He states that they instantly removed their ear rings, necklaces and nose studs and Sayyidunā Bilāl radhiyallahu anhu collected all of them to give into charity.[5] This narration suggests that women do not require prior permission from their husbands to give into charity. These female companions radhiyallahu anhunna donated all of their jewellery into charity without consulting their husbands and nor the Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam disapproving of them. It also suggests that they have ownership over their own wealth.

Many Hadīth commentators such as Imām Shawkani rahimahullah, Mullah Ali Qāri rahimahullah, Maulana Khalil Ahmad Saharanfoori rahimahullah and others have presented several interpretations of the above narration that seemingly prohibits women from spending without their husband’s permission.[6] Here is a summary,

  1. The command of permission is not an obligatory command rather something desirable as seeking his permission is more comforting for him and conducive towards (building) a positive relationship between the couple. Many have preferred this interpretation
  2. Some have said that the command of permission refers to an impulsive and careless woman who cannot manage her wealth appropriately. As for that woman who is intelligent and cautious in handling her wealth appropriately then she does not need her husband’s permission. This is the majority view. Ibn Hajar al-Asqalani rahimahullah adds to this stating that a careless woman is not permitted to transact without anyone’s permission; neither her husband or anyone else. Therefore, if she is wise then permitted unconditionally (to spend without his permission) but if she is imprudent (safeehah) then not permitted at all regardless.
  3. Some have said that this refers to optional charity only otherwise she can give her obligatory charity without his permission.
  4. Some have stated that permission is only necessary if she is spending from his wealth otherwise if it’s from her own wealth then it is only a courteous act but not something mandatory.
  5. Others have stipulated spending more than one-third however this seems to be a minority opinion only.

Imām Suyuti rahimahullah whilst quoting from Imām Nawawi rahimahullah states that seeking permission or not depends on the general custom wherein her husband doesn’t generally mind in her giving for instance, she randomly gives something to a beggar knowing that he wouldn’t generally object to it. This he says is judged by the normative habit of the people of the time. If, however she is in a specific situation where she may be unsure then she must consult her husband, especially if he is known to be stingy.[7]

These are some of the most famous interpretations of the Hadīth. Majority of the scholars are inclined to the second interpretation. What is for certain is that the Hadīth is not taken in its absolute literal sense. In certain instances, it is mandatory to consult her husband whilst in other cases it is merely preferable but not obligatory. Whatever wealth she owns belongs to her and has the right to expend it. What is important however is that she maintains caution so that she does not become sinful by being extravagant, spending her money on unlawful things, spending from his wealth without his permission or mismanaging her wealth inappropriately. It is at this point where he can now take her to task on it.

 

 

 [Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written and researched by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

 

[1] Sunnan Nasai Book of Zakāt, Hadīth No. 2540

أَخْبَرَنَا إِسْمَعِيلُ بْنُ مَسْعُودٍ، قَالَ حَدَّثَنَا خَالِدُ بْنُ الْحَارِثِ، قَالَ: حَدَّثَنَا حُسَيْنٌ الْمُعَلِّمُ، عَنْ عَمْرِو بْنِ شُعَيْبٍ، أَنَّ أَبَاهُ حَدَّثَهُ، عَنْ عَبْدِ اللَّهِ بْنِ عَمْرٍو، قَالَ: لَمَّا فَتَحَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ مَكَّةَ قَامَ خَطِيبًا فَقَالَ فِي خُطْبَتِهِ: «لَا يَجُوزُ لِامْرَأَةٍ عَطِيَّةٌ، إِلَّا بِإِذْنِ زَوْجِهَا»

 

[2] Sunnan Abu Dawood, Hadīth No. 3547

بَابٌ فِي عَطِيَّةِ الْمَرْأَةِ بِغَيْرِ إِذْنِ زَوْجِهَا

حَدَّثَنَا أَبُو كَامِلٍ، نَا خَالِدٌ- يَعْنِي ابْنَ الْحَارِثِ-، نَا حُسَيْنٌ، عن عَمْرِو بْنِ شُعَيْبٍ أَنَّ أَبَاهُ أَخْبَرَهُ، عن عَبْدِ اللهِ بْنِ عَمْرٍو، أَنَّ رَسُولَ اللهِ – صلى الله عليه وسلم – قالَ: “لَا يَجُوزُ لاِمْرَأَةٍ عَطِيَّةٌ إِلَّا بِإِذْنِ زَوْجِهَا“.

[3] Sunnan Abu Dawood, Hadīth No. 3546

بَابٌ: في عَطِيَّةِ الْمَرْأَةِ بِغَيْرِ إِذْنِ زَوْجِهَا

حَدَّثَنَا مُوسَى بْنُ إِسْمَاعِيلَ، نَا حَمَّادٌ، عَنْ دَاوُدَ بْنِ أَبِي هِنْدِ وَحَبِيبٍ الْمُعَلِّمِ، عن عَمْرِو بْنِ شُعَيْبٍ، عن أَبِيهِ، عن جَدِّهِ،أَنَّ رَسُولَ اللهِ – صلى الله عليه وسلم – قَالَ: “لَا يَجُوزُ لاِمْرَأَةٍ أَمْرٌ في مَالِهَا إِذَا مَلَكَ زَوْجُهَا عِصْمَتَهَا“.

 

[4] Imam Shawkani, Naylul awtar vol 6, p. 23-24

قَوْلُهُ: (أَمْرٌ) أَيْ عَطِيَّةٌ مِنْ الْعَطَايَا، وَلَعَلَّهُ عَدَلَ عَنْ الْعَطِيَّةِ إلَى الْأَمْرِ لِمَا بَيْنَ لَفْظِ الْمَرْأَةِ وَالْأَمْرِ مِنْ الْجِنَاسِ الَّذِي هُوَ نَوْعٌ مِنْ أَنْوَاعِ الْبَلَاغَةِ.

 

[5] Bukhari No. 5249

بَابُ: {وَالَّذِينَ لَمْ يَبْلُغُوا الحُلُمَ مِنْكُمْ} [النور: 58]

حَدَّثَنَا أَحْمَدُ بْنُ مُحَمَّدٍ، أَخْبَرَنَا عَبْدُ اللَّهِ، أَخْبَرَنَا سُفْيَانُ، عَنْ عَبْدِ الرَّحْمَنِ بْنِ عَابِسٍ، سَمِعْتُ ابْنَ عَبَّاسٍ رَضِيَ اللَّهُ عَنْهُمَا، سَأَلَهُ رَجُلٌ: شَهِدْتَ مَعَ رَسُولِ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ العِيدَ، أَضْحًى أَوْ فِطْرًا؟ قَالَ: نَعَمْ، وَلَوْلاَ مَكَانِي مِنْهُ مَا شَهِدْتُهُ – يَعْنِي مِنْ صِغَرِهِ – قَالَ: «خَرَجَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ فَصَلَّى ثُمَّ خَطَبَ، وَلَمْ يَذْكُرْ أَذَانًا وَلاَ إِقَامَةً، ثُمَّ أَتَى النِّسَاءَ فَوَعَظَهُنَّ وَذَكَّرَهُنَّ وَأَمَرَهُنَّ بِالصَّدَقَةِ، فَرَأَيْتُهُنَّ يَهْوِينَ إِلَى آذَانِهِنَّ وَحُلُوقِهِنَّ، يَدْفَعْنَ إِلَى بِلاَلٍ، ثُمَّ ارْتَفَعَ هُوَ وَبِلاَلٌ إِلَى بَيْتِهِ»

 

Bukhari No. 5883

بَابُ القُرْطِ لِلنِّسَاءِ

حَدَّثَنَا حَجَّاجُ بْنُ مِنْهَالٍ، حَدَّثَنَا شُعْبَةُ، قَالَ: أَخْبَرَنِي عَدِيٌّ، قَالَ: سَمِعْتُ سَعِيدًا، عَنِ ابْنِ عَبَّاسٍ، رَضِيَ اللَّهُ عَنْهُمَا، أَنَّ النَّبِيَّ صَلَّى اللهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ «صَلَّى [ص:159] يَوْمَ العِيدِ رَكْعَتَيْنِ، لَمْ يُصَلِّ قَبْلَهَا وَلاَ بَعْدَهَا، ثُمَّ أَتَى النِّسَاءَ وَمَعَهُ بِلاَلٌ، فَأَمَرَهُنَّ بِالصَّدَقَةِ، فَجَعَلَتِ المَرْأَةُ تُلْقِي قُرْطَهَا»

 

[6] Maulana Khalil Ahmad Saharanfoori, Badhlul Majhood, vol 11, p. 275

قال الخطابي (1): عند أكثر العلماء هذا على معنى حسن العشرة واستطابة نفس الزوج بذلك، إلا أن مالك (2) بن أنس قال: يرد ما فعلت من ذلك حتى يأذن الزوج، قال الشيخ: وقد يحتمل أن يكون ذلك في غير الرشيدة، وقد ثبت عنه – صلى الله عليه وسلم – أنه قال للنساء: “تصدقن، فجعلت المرأة تلقي القرط والخاتم، وبلال يتلقاها بكسائه”، وهذه عطية بغير إذن الزوج.

وفي هذا الحديث إن كان المراد من العطية من مال زوجها فحكمه ظاهر، وأما إذا كان المراد من العطية من مالها، فهو محمول على الأدب والاختيار والمشاورة مع الزوج

Ma’alim Sunnan vol 3, p. 174

خالد بن الحارث، قال: حَدَّثنا حسين عن عمرو بن شعيب أن أباه أخبره عن عبد الله بن عمرو أن رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم قال لا يجوز لامرأة عطية إلاّ بإذن زوجها.

قال الشيخ هذا عند أكثر العلماء على معنى حسن العشرة واستطابة نفس الزوج بذلك إلاّ أن مالك بن أنس قال ترد ما فعلت من ذلك حتى يأذن الزوج.

قال الشيخ ومحتمل أن يكون ذلك في غير الرشيد وقد ثبت عن رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم أنه قال للنساء تصدقن فجعلت المرأة تلقي القرط والخاتم وبلال يتلقاها بكسائه وهذه عطية بغير إذن أزواجهن.

 

Mullah Ali Qari, Mirqat sharhul Mishkat, vol 3, p. 1063

قَالَ فِي شَرْحِ السُّنَّةِ: فِيهِ دَلِيلٌ عَلَى جَوَازِ عَطِيَّةِ الْمَرْأَةِ بِغَيْرِ إِذَنْ زَوْجِهَا، وَهُوَ قَوْلُ عَامَّةِ أَهْلِ الْعِلْمِ، إِلَّا مَا حُكِيَ عَنْ مَالِكٍ قَالُوا: وَيُحْمَلُ ذَلِكَ عَلَى حُسْنِ الْمُعَاشَرَةِ، وَاسْتِطَابَةِ نَفْسِ الرَّجُلِ، وَأَمَّا مَا رُوِيَ أَنَّهُ – عَلَيْهِ الصَّلَاةُ وَالسَّلَامُ – قَالَ: ” «لَا يَجُوزُ لِامْرَأَةٍ عَطِيَّةٌ إِلَّا بِإِذْنِ زَوْجِهَا» ” مَحْمُولٌ عَلَى غَيْرِ الرَّشِيدَةِ. ذَكَرَهُ السَّيِّدُ. قَالَ ابْنُ حَجَرٍ: وَهُوَ عَجِيبٌ إِذْ غَيْرُ الرَّشِيدَةِ لَا يَنْفُذُ تَصَرُّفُهَا بِإِذْنِ زَوْجٍ وَلَا بِغَيْرِهِ، فَالْوَجْهُ إِنْ صَحَّ حَمْلُهُ عَلَى الْإِعْطَاءِ مِنْ مَالِهِ، فَهَذَا هُوَ الَّذِي يَتَوَقَّفُ عَلَى إِذْنِهِ، وَأَمَّا مَالُهَا فَإِنْ كَانَتْ رَشِيدَةً جَازَ لَهَا مُطْلَقًا، أَوْ سَفِيهَةً امْتَنَعَ عَلَيْهَا مُطْلَقًا اهـ. أَوْ مَحْمُولٌ عَلَى الْأَوْلَى، وَخُصَّ مِنْهُ أَمْرُ الْمَوْلَى، أَوْ مَحْمُولٌ عَلَى الْعَطِيَّةِ الْعُرْفِيَّةِ مِنَ الْهِبَةِ لِلْأَجْنَبِيَّةِ بِنَاءً عَلَى حُسْنِ الْمُعَاشَرَةِ الزَّوْجِيَّةِ، أَوْ عَلَى الصَّدَقَاتِ التَّطَوُّعِيَّةِ دُونَ الْوَاجِبَاتِ وَالْفَرْضِيَّةِ.

قَالَ بَعْضُ الْعُلَمَاءِ: إِتْيَانُهُ – عَلَيْهِ الصَّلَاةُ وَالسَّلَامُ – النِّسَاءَ خَاصٌّ بِهِ ; لِأَنَّهُ أَبٌ لَهُنَّ،

 

Naylul awtar vol 6, p. 23-24

وَقَدْ اُسْتُدِلَّ بِهَذَا الْحَدِيثِ عَلَى أَنَّهُ لَا يَجُوزُ لِلْمَرْأَةِ أَنْ تُعْطِيَ عَطِيَّةً مِنْ مَالِهَا بِغَيْرِ إذْنِ زَوْجِهَا وَلَوْ كَانَتْ رَشِيدَةً وَقَدْ اُخْتُلِفَ فِي ذَلِكَ، فَقَالَ اللَّيْثُ: لَا يَجُوزُ لَهَا ذَلِكَ مُطْلَقًا لَا فِي الثُّلُثِ وَلَا فِيمَا دُونَهُ إلَّا فِي الشَّيْءِ التَّافِهِ، وَقَالَ طَاوُسٌ وَمَالِكٌ: إنَّهُ يَجُوزُ لَهَا أَنْ تُعْطِيَ مَالَهَا بِغَيْرِ إذْنِهِ فِي الثُّلُثِ لَا فِيمَا فَوْقَهُ فَلَا يَجُوزُ إلَّا بِإِذْنِهِ وَذَهَبَ الْجُمْهُورُ إلَى أَنَّهُ يَجُوزُ لَهَا مُطْلَقًا مِنْ غَيْرِ إذْنٍ مِنْ الزَّوْجِ إذَا لَمْ تَكُنْ سَفِيهَةً، فَإِنْ كَانَتْ سَفِيهَةً لَمْ يَجُزْ قَالَ فِي الْفَتْحِ: وَأَدِلَّةُ الْجُمْهُورِ مِنْ الْكِتَابِ وَالسُّنَّةِ كَثِيرَةٌ انْتَهَى، وَقَدْ اسْتَدَلَّ الْبُخَارِيُّ فِي صَحِيحِهِ عَلَى جَوَازِ ذَلِكَ بِأَحَادِيثَ ذَكَرَهَا فِي بَابِ هِبَةِ الْمَرْأَةِ لِغَيْرِ زَوْجِهَا مِنْ كِتَابِ الْهِبَةِ وَمِنْ جُمْلَةِ أَدِلَّةِ الْجُمْهُورِ حَدِيثُ جَابِرٍ الْمَذْكُورُ قَبْلَ هَذَا، وَحَمَلُوا حَدِيثَ الْبَابِ عَلَى مَا إذَا كَانَتْ سَفِيهَةً غَيْرَ رَشِيدَةٍ.

 

[7] Imam Suyuti, Hashiyah Nasai vol 5, p. 66

لَا يَجُوزُ لِامْرَأَةٍ عَطِيَّةٌ إِلَّا بِإِذْنِ زَوْجِهَا قَالَ النَّوَوِيُّ وَالْإِذْنُ ضَرْبَانِ أَحَدُهُمَا الْإِذْنُ الصَّرِيحُ فِي النَّفَقَةِ وَالصَّدَقَةِ وَالثَّانِي الْإِذْنُ الْمَفْهُومُ مِنَ اطِّرَادِ الْعُرْفِ كَإِعْطَاءِ السَّائِلِ كِسْرَةً وَنَحْوَهَا مِمَّا جَرَتِ الْعَادَةُ بِهِ وَاطِّرَادُ الْعُرْفِ فِيهِ وَعُلِمَ بِالْعُرْفِ رِضَا الزَّوْجِ بِهِ فَإِنَّهُ فِي ذَلِكَ حَاصِلٌ وَإِنْ لَمْ يَتَكَلَّمْ وَهَذَا إِذَا عُلِمَ رِضَاهُ بِالْعُرْفِ وَعُلِمَ أَنَّ نَفْسَهُ كَنُفُوسِ غَالِبِ النَّاسِ فِي السَّمَاحَةِ بِذَلِكَ وَالرِّضَا بِهِ فَإِنِ اضْطَرَبَ الْعُرْفُ وَشُكَّ فِي رِضَاهُ أَوْ عُلِمَ شحه بذلك لَمْ يَجُزْ لِلْمَرْأَةِ وَغَيْرِهَا التَّصَدُّقُ مِنْ مَالِهِ إِلَّا بِصَرِيحِ إِذْنِهِ قَالَ وَهَذَا كُلُّهُ مَفْرُوضٌ فِي قَدْرٍ يَسِيرٍ يُعْلَمُ رِضَا الْمَالِكِ بِهِ فِي الْعَادَةِ فَإِنْ زَادَ عَلَى الْمُتَعَارَفِ لَمْ يجز

 

Intrusive Thoughts on Divorce

jknfatawa1 Divorce
Intrusive Thoughts on Divorce

24th December 2020

 

Question: Do intrusive thoughts of divorce result in Talaq?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

The question about whether intrusive thoughts of divorce constitute a divorce or not, then firstly note that all types of intrusive thoughts – by this we mean waswasas – are pardoned and forgiven so long as the individual does not bring them into action nor utter them clearly. The Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam said, “Very Allāh has pardoned my nation of the whisperings (waswasa) coming into the heart so long as (people) do not act according to it or utter it.”[1] Thoughts like misgivings come and go and most of the times are beyond our natural control. For this reason, Shariah rulings are not determined by such thoughts that constantly occur in one’s mind or heart. Scholars and jurists have therefore ruled that misgivings or thoughts about divorce without uttering them do not take into effect at all.[2] By uttering does not mean mere movements of the lips either, rather clear enough whereby one can hear the words himself.[3] As a point of principle about divorce, verbal utterance (or written) of specific words of divorce is an integral condition (rukn) for divorce to take place.[4] Mere contemplating about divorce, thinking over it, misgivings or using words that are not connected to divorce do not constitute divorce at all.

To give some examples, if during a conversation a specific word was mentioned that has no relevance to divorce at all yet divorce just crossed his mind then no divorce takes place. Likewise, if during a non-related divorce conversation with someone, a person mentions a word that can be used for divorce triggers a thought of divorce in the mind, even so no divorce takes place. Divorce only takes into effect by clearly uttering the words of divorce addressed to his wife.

As this is a commonly occurring problem amongst many individuals, below is a list of some practical steps to overcome such intrusive thoughts and misgivings;

  1. Not to overthink by dwelling deeply into the intricate details. The problem lies in analyzing the thoughts deeply. Investigating is not the solution to the problem, otherwise you will overwhelm yourself which is not what the Shariah aims to do.  As Muslims we are not responsible for dwelling into that degree of scrutiny.
  2. Refrain from reaching out towards that which you cannot attain. By delving into the intricate details, you are attempting to reach to that which you have no control over. Learn to let go and move on with your life.
  3. Judge according to what is apparent to you. In this case, divorce only takes into effect once it is pronounced in clear words. If not pronounced then no divorce takes place. If you are in doubt whether divorce took place or not then leave it aside in favour of what is apparent to you.
  4. Learn to be positive about Allāh Almighty. Do not fear that He will hold you into account. Allāh Almighty is very Merciful to us and never punishes for that which we have no natural control over. So cast a side doubtful matters and learn to put your trust in Him.
  5. Each time the thought of divorce comes to your mind then recite the ta’awwudh. Engage in dhikr of Allāh Almighty throughout the day. Keep your mind constantly occupied as much as possible with other beneficial things. This will help alleviate your misgivings.
  6. Lastly, make Dua to Allāh Almighty to alleviate the burden from you as He has ultimate power over everything.

 

The following Dua I would recommend you to constantly recite daily;

رَبِّ أَعُوذُ بِكَ مِنْ هَمَزَاتِ الشَّيَاطِينِ وَأَعُوذُ بِكَ رَبِّ أَنْ يَحْضُرُونِ

My Lord! I take refuge in you from whisperings of the devils and I seek refuge with you my Lord that they be present. [Surah Mu’min 23:97-98]

 

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

 

Written and researched by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

 

[1] Sunnan Abu Dawood, Kitab al-Talaq, No. 2209

بَابٌ فِي الْوَسْوَسَةِ بِالطَّلَاقِ

حَدَّثَنَا مُسْلِمُ بْنُ إِبْرَاهِيمَ، حَدَّثَنَا هِشَامٌ، عَنْ قَتَادَةَ، عَنْ زُرَارَةَ بْنِ أَوْفَى، عَنْ أَبِي هُرَيْرَةَ رَضِيَ اللَّهُ عَنْهُ قَالَ: قَالَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ – صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ -: ” «إِنَّ اللَّهَ تَجَاوَزَ عَنْ أُمَّتِي مَا وَسْوَسَتْ بِهِ صُدُورُهَا، مَا لَمْ تَعْمَلْ بِهِ، أَوْ تَتَكَلَّمْ»

 

[2] Al-Abidi, Awn al-Ma’bood, Kitab Talaq, vol 6, p. 210

بَابٌ فِي الْوَسْوَسَةِ بِالطَّلَاقِ

(إِنَّ اللَّهَ تَجَاوَزَ لِأُمَّتِي) وَفِي رِوَايَةِ الْبُخَارِيِّ عَنْ أُمَّتِي أَيْ عَفَا عَنْهُمْ (عَمَّا لَمْ تَتَكَلَّمْ بِهِ) إِنْ كَانَ قَوْلِيًّا (أَوْ تَعْمَلْ بِهِ) إِنْ كَانَ فِعْلِيًّا (وَبِمَا حَدَّثَتْ بِهِ أَنْفُسَهَا) بَالنَّصْبِ عَلَى الْمَفْعُولِيَّةِ يُقَالُ حَدَّثْتُ نَفْسِي بِكَذَا أَوْ بَالرَّفْعِ عَلَى الْفَاعِلِيَّةِ يُقَالُ حَدَّثَتْنِي نَفْسِي بِكَذَا

قَالَ الْخَطَّابِيُّ وَفِيهِ أَنَّهُ إِذَا طَلَّقَ امْرَأَتَهُ بِقَلْبِهِ وَلَمْ يَتَكَلَّمْ بِهِ بِلِسَانِهِ فَإِنَّ الطَّلَاقَ غَيْرُ وَاقِعٍ وَبِهِ قَالَ عَطَاءُ بْنُ رَبَاحٍ وَسَعِيدُ بْنُ جُبَيْرٍ وَالشَّعْبِيُّ وَقَتَادَةُ وَالثَّوْرِيُّ وَأَصْحَابُ الرَّأْيِ وَهُوَ قَوْلُ الشَّافِعِيِّ وَأَحْمَدَ وَإِسْحَاقَ

[3] Maraqi alal Falah p. 219

باب شروط الصلاة وأركانها

وقال الهندواني لا تجزئه ما لم تسمع أذناه ومن بقربه بالسماع شرط فيما يتعلق بالنطق باللسان التحريمة والقراءة السرية والتشهد والأذكار والتسمية على الذبيحة ووجوب سجود التلاوة والعتاق والطلاق والاستثناء واليمين والنذر والإسلام والإيمان حتى لو أجرى الطلاق على قلبه وحرك لسانه من غير تلفظ يسمع لا يقع

 

[4] Durrul Mukhtār wa hashiyah Ibn Ābideen Shāmi, Kitāb Talāq, vol 4 p. 431

[رُكْن الطَّلَاق]

وَرُكْنُهُ لَفْظٌ مَخْصُوصٌ

(قَوْلُهُ وَرُكْنُهُ لَفْظٌ مَخْصُوصٌ) هُوَ مَا جُعِلَ دَلَالَةً عَلَى مَعْنَى الطَّلَاقِ مِنْ صَرِيحٍ أَوْ كِنَايَةٍ فَخَرَجَ الْفُسُوخُ عَلَى مَا مَرَّ

وَبِهِ ظَهَرَ أَنَّ مَنْ تَشَاجَرَ مَعَ زَوْجَتِهِ فَأَعْطَاهَا ثَلَاثَةَ أَحْجَارٍ يَنْوِي الطَّلَاقَ وَلَمْ يَذْكُرْ لَفْظًا لَا صَرِيحًا وَلَا كِنَايَةً لَا يَقَعُ عَلَيْهِ كَمَا أَفْتَى بِهِ الْخَيْرُ الرَّمْلِيُّ وَغَيْرُهُ

 

Ibn Humām, Fathul Qadeer, Kitāb Talaq, vol 3 p. 443

وَرُكْنُهُ نَفْسُ اللَّفْظِ.

 

Constant Doubts about Impurity

jknfatawa1 Purity 0 Comment

23rd December 2020

 

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: I am very confused and worried about the purity of my house from impurities due to my child who is 3 years old. She sometimes leaks her pamper in the middle of the night and when I change her trouser her feet get touched by the wet trouser. And when she wakes up in the morning, she walks with those feet that are dry from urine. Sometimes the floor is a bit moist because the air conditioner is on. Also while I change her diaper, my hand touches her diaper (sometimes the urine) and also her legs with those wet hands, and when I make her sit on the toilet to wash her, when she gets up the water trickles to her legs (where I touch while changing the diaper and the urine gets transferred a bit) and that water moves to the floor, making the floor impure. At this moment i doing see any trace of any urine in the house (no smell, colour or taste), maybe it has dried up or something. I don’t understand whether these are waswasah or genuine concerns. Kindly help me in this matter and if I have to purify the house then how.

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

In reference to your query impurity is determined by the presence of colour or strong smell of the stain. When its smell, colour or stain is no longer present then that is the sign that the stain itself has been removed.[1] However, where there is no physical body of impurity, the eye can see and an individual has tried to remove any remaining najasat, then the rest which may be still present (smell, stain) will be forgiven.[2] Even if an individual has doubt whether the carpet was stained or not as, certainty will always override the doubt and it will be treated as pure. A person is not required to over contemplate over the matter.

In your case with regards to dried up urine then it is essential to wash that particular area only if the stain is visible or if not but you are certain that there is urine stain.[3] There is no need to purify the entire house when the urine has not touched any other surface. As for the child’s feet touching wet urine then they become impure and must be washed,[4] but if the child walks with wet feet then there is no need to worry about the carpet being soiled unless the stains are clearly visible to you.

A final note to your query is that waswasas regarding impurity and purity can constantly allow a person to have second guesses in matters. It is important to firmly fix a ruling on the matter e.g. this is pure or impure based on the above guidance and move forward from that decision without hesitation. Rulings are never based on intrusive thoughts, rather on what is apparent to us.

 

[Allāh Knows Best]

 

 

Written by:  Apa Gul-e-Maryam         Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

 

[1] Muheet Al Burhani, Kitab Tahara,Vol 1, Pg 195-196

يجب أن تعلم أن إزالة النجاسة واجبة، قال الله تعالى: {والرجز فاهجر} (المدثر: 5) وقال تعالى: {وثيابك فطهر} (المدثر: 4) وإزالتها إن كانت مرئية بإزالة عينها وأثرها إن كانت شيئا يزول أثرها ولا يعتبر فيه العدد، وإن كان شيئا لا يزول أثرها فإزالتها بإزالة عينها ويكون ما بقي من الأثر عفوا، وإن كان كثيرا، وإنما اعتبرنا زوال العين، والأثر فيما  يزول

الأثر؛ لأن النجاسة كانت باعتبار العين والأثر، فيبقى ببقائهما ويزول بزوالهما، وإنما لم يعتبر زوال الأثر فيما لا يزول أثرها لما روي عن رسول الله عليه السلام «أنه قال لخولة حين سألته عن دم الحيض: اغسليه ولا يضرك أثره» ، والمعنى في ذلك الحرج.

 

[2] Fatawa Hindiyya, Vol 1, Pg 41-42

هكذا في الزاهدي وإزالتها إن كانت مرئية بإزالة عينها وأثرها إن كانت شيئا يزول أثره ولا يعتبر فيه العدد. كذا في المحيط فلو زالت عينها بمرة اكتفى بها ولو لم تزل بثلاثة تغسل إلى أن تزول، كذا في السراجية.

وإن كانت شيئا لا يزول أثره إلا بمشقة بأن يحتاج في إزالته إلى شيء آخر سوى الماء كالصابون لا يكلف بإزالته. هكذا في التبيين وكذا لا يكلف بالماء المغلي بالنار. هكذا في السراج الوهاج

 

[3] Hidaya, Kitab Tahara, Vol 1, Pg 36

(إنْ أَصَابَهُ بَوْلٌ فَيَبِسَ لَمْ يَجُزْ حَتَّى يَغْسِلَهُ) وَكَذَا كُلُّ مَا لَا جِرْمَ لَهُ كَالْخَمْرِ لِأَنَّ الْأَجْزَاءَ تَتَشَرَّبُ فِيهِ وَلَا جَاذِبَ يَجْذِبُهَا

 

[4] Ikhtiyaar Li Ta’leel Mukhtyar, Vol 1, Pg 32

   قال: (و) كذلك بول (الصغير والصغيرة أكلا أو لا)لما روينا من غير فصل، وما روي من نضح بول الصبي إذا لم يأكل، فالنضح يذكر بمعنى الغسل. «قال – عليه الصلاة والسلام – لما سئل عن المذي: ” انضح فرجك بالماء» ، أي اغسله، فيحمل عليه توفيقا.

 

Observing a Fast on a Friday Alone

jknfatawa1 Fasting

14th December 2020

Question: What is the Islamic ruling on fasting on Fridays alone without adding another day of fast before or after it?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

Fasting on a Friday with an additional day of fast before or after it is permissible according to all schools of thought but to observe a fast on a Friday alone has been a debatable issue amongst our pious predecessors. Below is our detailed answer that discusses the variant positions on this issue with their respective rulings. We will thereafter conclude with some recommendations.

Overall, there are three opinions on fasting on a Friday alone;

  1. The first opinion is that it is unconditionally prohibited [karahat mutlaq]. Amongst those companions holding this opinion include Sayyidunā Ali radhiyallahu anhu, Sayyidunā Abu Dhar radhiyallahu anhu and Sayyidunā Abdullah Ibn Umar radhiyallahu anhu. Amongst the classical scholars include Ibn Hazm rahimahullah, Imām Mujahid rahimahullah, Imām Zuhri rahimahullah, Imām Sha’bi rahimahullah and Imām Ibrahim Nakh’i rahimahullah. Their use the Hadith as an evidence where the Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam said, “Allah has made this day (Friday) a day of Eid for you”. He also said, “There is no fasting on the day of Eid.”[1] Here the day of Eid refers to Friday which means that Friday follows the similar ruling as Eid day in the prohibition of fasting. The report of Sayyidah Juwayriya radhiyallahu anha is also used to support this opinion wherein she fasted on Friday without intending to add another day of fast before or after it. The Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam instructed her to break her fast. [2] Hence any one fasting on this day only should break their fast unless they add another day of fast before it or after it.[3]
  2. The second opinion is that fasting specifically on a Friday is minor disliked [makrooh tanzeehi]. The prohibition in the Hadith is not for Haram but makruh tanzihi However, if an individual attaches a day of fast before or after it, then its reprehensibility [karahat] is removed. Those holding this view include Sayyidunā Abu Hurairah radhiyallahu anhu, Imām Abu Yusuf rahimahullah, Mohammad Ibn Sereen rahimahullah, and Ibn Munthir rahimahullah .[4] Imām Shuranbalali in Nurul Iydhah [5] also supports this view as well as Ibn Mazah in Muheet Al-Burhani (both Hanafi jurists). [6] This is also the view of Imām Shafi’ee rahimahullah and Imām Ahmad ibn Hanbal rahimahullah.[7]
  3. The final opinion is that it is permissible without any restrictions. Amongst those maintaining this view include Sayyidunā Abdullah ibn Abbas radhiyallahu, Imām Abu Hanifa rahimahullah, the preferred view of Imām Malik rahimahullah and Imām Muhammad rahimahullah. These Imāms present the report of Sayyiduna Ibn Masood radhiyallahu who said that, “The Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam rarely broke a Friday fast (meaning he would observe it).” Dawoodi who was from the companions of Imām Malik rahimahullah narrates that the hadith of prohibition did not reach Imām Malik and had it reached him, he would not have reject it.[8] Furthermore, Imām Malik rahimahullah in his Muwatta himself states that he did not hear a prohibition from the people of ilm or fiqh with regards to fasting on that day hence, fasting on Friday is something good.[9] Some scholars have stated that if a specific fast happens to fall on a Friday for instance the fast of Arafah or the vow fast then it would be permissible.[10] The Hanafi jurist, Ibn Nujaym rahimahullah mentions that fasting on that day alone is mustahab, just like the Monday and Thursday fast.[11] The Hanafies mentioned this on the account that fasting on this day is a form of reverence for it. It is subsequently the best day out of the week, one that deserves to be celebrated (through worship) as a small Eid.[12]

Imām Baduddin al-Ayni rahimahullah and Imām Nawawi rahimahullah in their respective Hadith commentaries mention the following reasons why fasting on a Friday alone is prohibited.

  1. Friday is a day of Eid a celebration should be carried out therefore, fasting is not permitted.
  2. It is a day of ibadah, dhikr and dua and fasting may cause negligence due to the different acts that are carried out on that day and an individual may not actively perform them.[13]
  3. Fasting displays extreme honour for this day and shows its importance above all other days that would clearly cause social strife. Arguably, Ibn Nujaym rahimahullah encourages fasting for this same reason; honour. Therefore, scholars use the same understanding but interpret it in different ways.
  4. The prohibition was for the fear that it does not become compulsory upon the Ummah as with qiyamul layl for the Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam. This however is objectionable as this is not necessarily the case for instance the fasting on Mondays and Thursdays.
  5. To oppose the people of the book like the Christians in their practice of fasting on a Saturday (during that time), therefore to distance ourselves from them in specifying a day for fasting prohibition was applied. [14] However, concessions of fasting on Friday can apply to a number of different situations as indicated above for instance, the fast of Arafah coincidentally falls on a Friday.[15]

It appears that most of the scholars consider a single fast on a Friday to be generally disliked due to the explicit Hadith. Some scholars have reconciled between the conflicting reports and opinions stating that it is prohibited only if it leads to corruption in faith (for instance, over exaggeration in the honour of Friday by treating it a specific reward in itself) otherwise mustahab.[16] Some contemporary Hanafi scholars such as Maulana Yusuf Ludhiyanwi rahimahullah and Maulana Mahmoodul Hassan Gangohi rahimahullah have disliked [makruh tanzihi] fasting on a Friday alone.[17]

What is clear from the above discussion that there are different understandings of the narrations on this topic leading to different views amongst the scholars. The rationale presented in the wisdom of its prohibition are somewhat questionable. As the majority view is inclined towards it being disliked as in makruh due to the Hadith, it is best avoided altogether. Should one choose to fast on a Friday then better to add an extra day of fast before or after it.

 

 

 [Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written by:  Apa Gul-e-Maryam         Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

 

[1] Allamah al-Ayni, Umdatul Qari, Kitab Sawm, Vol 11, Pg 103-105

أحدها: كراهته مطلقا، وهو قول النخعي والشعبي والزهري ومجاهد، وقد روي ذلك عن علي، رضي الله تعالى عنه، وقد حكى أبو عمر عن أحمد وإسحاق كراهته مطلقا، ونقل ابن المنذر وابن حزم منع صومه عن علي وأبي هريرة وسلمان وأبي ذر، رضي الله تعالى عنهم، وشبهوه بيوم العيد، ففي الحديث الصحيح: أن النبي، صلى الله عليه وسلم، قال: )إن هذا يوم جعله الله عيدا) وروى النسائي من حديث أبي سعيد الخدري أن النبي، صلى الله عليه وسلم،قال:  لا صيام يوم عيد

 

[2]  Ownul Ma’bood, Kitab Sawm, Vol 7, Pg 47

وروى البخاري في صحيحه عن جويرية بنت الحرث أن النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم دخل عليها يوم الجمعة وهي صائمة فقال أصمت أمس قالت لا قال تريدين أن تصومي غدا قالت لا قال فأفطري

 

[3] Mir’aatul Mafateeh, Kitab Sawm, Vol 7,Pg 73

ولفظ البخاري لا يصوم. قال الحافظ:كذا للأكثر وهو بلفظ النفي والمراد به النهي، وفي رواية الكشميهني لا يصومن بلفظ النهي المؤكد (أحدكم يوم الجمعة) أي مفردا (إلا أن يصوم قبله) أي يوما (أو يصوم بعده) أي يوما كما في رواية النسائي وللبخاري إلا يوما قبله أو بعده، أي إلا أن يصوم يوما قبله، أو يصوم يوما بعده، وللإسماعيلي إلا أن تصوموا يوما قبله أو بعده و”أو”لمنع الخلو، والمعنى انه يكفي صوم أحدهما ولو صامهما جاز أيضا والحديث دليل على تحريم النفل بصوم يوم الجمعة منفردا، وعلى جواز صوم يومها لمن صام قبله أو بعده، فلو أفرده بالصوم وجب فطره كما يفيده

 

[4] Umdatul Qari, Kitab Sawm, Vol 11, Pg 103-105

القول الثالث: أنه يكره إفراده بالصوم، فإن صام يوما قبله أو بعده لم يكره، وهو قول أبي هريرة ومحمد بن سيرين وطاووس وأبي يوسف، وفي (كتاب الطراز : واختاره ابن المنذر،

 

[5] Nurul Iydhah, Kitab Sawm, Vol 2, Pg 127

إفراد يوم الجمعة. – وإفراد يوم السبت

 

[6] Muheet Al-Burhani, Kitab Sawm, Vol 2, Pg 393

ولا بأس بصوم يوم الجمعة، وقال أبو يوسف رحمه الله: جاء حديث في كراهيته إلا أن يصوم يوما قبله أو بعده

 

[7] Zuhayli, Fiqhul Islami wa adillatihu, Kitāb al-Sawm, vol 2 p. 517

أنواع الصيام: النوع الثالث ـ الصوم المكروه

وقال الشافعية: يكره إفراد الجمعة بالصوم، وإفراد السبت والأحد بالصوم،……. وهذا موافق لمذهب الحنابلة أيضاً.

[8] Bahr Raiq, Kitab Sawm, Vol 2, Pg 278

ومنه صوم يوم السبت بانفراد للتشبه باليهود بخلاف صوم يوم الجمعة فإن صومه بانفراده مستحب عند العامة كالاثنين والخميس وكره الكل بعضهم

 

Durrul Mukhtar, Kitab Sawm, Vol 2, Pg 375

قوله: ويوم الجمعة ولو منفردا) صرح به في النهر وكذا في البحر فقال: إن صومه بانفراده مستحب عند العامة كالاثنين والخميس وكره الكل بعضهم اهـ ومثله في المحيط معللا بأن لهذه الأيام فضيلة ولم يكن في صومها تشبه بغير أهل القبلة كما في الأشباه وتبعه في نور الإيضاح من كراهة إفراده بالصوم قول البعض وفي الخانية ولا بأس بصوم يوم الجمعة عند أبي حنيفة ومحمد لما روي عن ابن عباس أنه كان يصومه ولا يفطر. اهـ. وظاهر الاستشهاد بالأثر أن المراد بلا بأس الاستحباب وفي التجنيس قال أبو يوسف: جاء حديث في كراهته إلا أن يصوم قبله أو بعده فكان الاحتياط أن يضم إليه يوما آخر.

 

Naylul Awtar, Kitab Sawm, Vol 4, 296

 وقال مالك وأبو حنيفة: لا يكره، واستدلا بحديث ابن مسعود الآتي: «أن النبي – صلى الله عليه وسلم – قل ما كان يفطر يوم الجمعة

Ibid, Pg 298

قال الداودي من أصحاب مالك: لم يبلغ مالكا هذا الحديث ولو بلغه لم يخالفه وعن ابن مسعود: «أن النبي – صلى الله عليه وسلم – قلما كان يفطر يوم الجمعة

 

Zuhayli, Fiqhul Islami wa adillatihu, Kitāb al-Sawm, vol 2 p. 516

أنواع الصيام: النوع الثالث ـ الصوم المكروه

قال المالكية قال العلامة خليل: يندب صوم الدهر ولا يكره، للإجماع على لزومه لمن نذره، ولو كان مكروهاً أو ممنوعاً لما لزم على القاعدة، ويندب صوم يوم الجمعة ولا يكره لأن محل النهي عن ذلك على خوف فرضه، وقد انتفت هذه العلة بوفاته عليه الصلاة والسلام،

[9] Sharah Nawawi Ala Muslim, Kitab Sawm, Vol 8, Pg 18-19

وأما قول مالك في الموطأ لم أسمع أحدا من أهل العلم والفقه ومن به يقتدى نهى عن صيام يوم الجمعة وصيامه حسن

 

[10]  Awnul Ma’bood, Kitab Sawm, Vol 7, Pg 47

ويؤخذ من الاستثناء جوازه لمن صام قبله أو بعده أو اتفق وقوعه في أيام له عادة بصومها كمن يصوم أيام البيض أو من له عادة بصوم يوم معين كيوم عرفة فوافق يوم الجمعة ويؤخذ منه جواز صومه لمن نذر يوم قدوم

 

[11] Durrul Mukhtar, Kitab Sawm, Vol 2, Pg 375

وكذا في البحر فقال: إن صومه بانفراده مستحب عند العامة كالاثنين والخميس

 

[12] Badai Sanai, Kitab Sawm, Vol 2, Pg 79

وقال عامتهم: إنه مستحب لأن هذه الأيام من الأيام الفاضلة فكان تعظيمها بالصوم مستحبا،

 

[13] Sharah Nawawi Ala Muslim, Kitab Sawm, Vol 8, Pg  18-19

يوم الجمعة يوم دعاء وذكر وعبادة من الغسل والتبكير إلى الصلاة وانتظارها واستماع الخطبة وإكثار الذكر بعدها لقول الله تعالى فإذا قضيت الصلاة فانتشروا في الأرض وابتغوا من فضل الله واذكروا الله كثيرا وغير ذلك من العبادات في يومها فاستحب الفطر فيه فيكون أعون له على هذه الوظائف

 

[14] Umdatul Qari, Kitab Sawm, Vol 11, Pg 105

الأول: ما قاله النووي عن العلماء أنه يوم دعاء وَذكر وَعبادَة من الْغسْل والتبكير إِلَى الصَّلَاة وانتظارها واستماع الْخطْبَة…..

الثاني: هو كونه يوم عيد، والعيد لا صيام فيه،

الثالث: لأجل خوف المبالغة في تعظيمه، فيفتتن به كما افتتن اليهود بالسبت،

الرَّابِع: خوف اعْتِقَاد وُجُوبه، وَاعْترض عَلَيْهِ بِصَوْم الْإِثْنَيْنِ وَالْخَمِيس.

الخامس: خشية أن يفرض عليهم كما خشي رسول الله، صلى الله عليه وسلم، من قيام الليل

السادس: مخالفة النصارى، لأنه لا يجب عليهم صومه ونحن مأمورون بمخالفتهم

[15] Awnul Mabood, Kitab Sawm, Vol 7, Pg 97

ويؤخذ من الاستثناء جوازه لمن صام قبله أو بعده أو اتفق وقوعه في أيام له عادة بصومها كمن يصوم أيام البيض أو من له عادة بصوم يوم معين كيوم عرفة فوافق يوم الجمعة ويؤخذ منه جواز صومه لمن نذر يوم قدوم

 

[16] Tuhfatul Ahwathi, Kitab Sawm, Vol 3,Pg 369

يستحب صوم يوم الجمعة كما في الدر المختار إلا أن المحشين ترددوا في الاستحباب،وعندي: إن كان يتوهم فساد الاعتقاد لا يصوم، وإلا فيستحب وهكذا يجمع في الروايات الفقهية والحديثية

 

[17] Aap ke Masail Our Un Ka Kya Hal, Vol 4, Pg 618. If he does however then according to Maulana Yusuf Ludhiyanwi, one need not add an extra day of fast.

 

Fatawa Mahmoodiya, Kitab Sawm, Vol 10, Pg 197

 

A Musafir Joining a Muqeem Imam Late

jknfatawa1 Salah

11th December 2020

 

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: A musafir prays zuhr behind a muqeem Imām and reaches the Imām in the Qa’dah Akheerah. Does the musafir read four or two? 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer: In reference to your query, the traveller who joins the local Imam during qa’dah akheera (the last tashahhud position) will complete four rakaats after the Imam finishes. [1] This is due to the reason that the traveller has now joined the congregation despite joining at the very end, hence he will also make up for what he has missed with the Imam.[2] Furthermore, the fact that once the traveler joins the local Imam, he becomes part of his Salāh and cannot oppose him. Upon making the intention behind this Imam, he must now pray four rak’ats and if he joins late then he must make up for the remaining missed rak’ats to complete four.[3]

 

[Allāh Knows Best]

 

 

Written by:  Mufti Anas Mullah        Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

 

   

[1] Fatawa Hindiyya, Kitabus Salah, Baab idraakil Faridah, Vol1, Pg 120

وَكَذَلِكَ فِي الْعِشَاءِ وَالْعَصْرِ غَيْرَ أَنَّهُ لَا يَدْخُلُ مَعَهُمْ تَطَوُّعًا فِي الْعَصْرِ بَعْدَ الْفَرَاغِ إذَا أَدْرَكَ رَكْعَةً مِنْ الظُّهْرِ مَعَ الْإِمَامِ فَإِنَّهُ لَمْ يُصَلِّ الظُّهْرَ بِجَمَاعَةٍ فِي قَوْلِهِمْ جَمِيعًا وَيَكُونُ مُدْرِكًا فَضْلَ الْجَمَاعَةِ فِي قَوْلِهِمْ جَمِيعًا وَإِنْ أَدْرَكَ ثَلَاثًا مَعَ الْإِمَامِ كَانَ مُصَلِّيًا مَعَ الْإِمَامِ، كَذَا فِي السِّرَاجِ الْوَهَّاجِ.

 

[2] Ibn Abideen, Shami, Kitabus Salah, Baab idraakil Faridah, Vol2, Pg 56

قُلْت: لَكِنْ قَوَّاهُ فِي فَتْحِ الْقَدِيرِ بِمَا سَيَأْتِي، مِنْ أَنَّ مَنْ أَدْرَكَ رَكْعَةً مِنْ الظُّهْرِ مَثَلًا فَقَدْ أَدْرَكَ فَضْلَ الْجَمَاعَةِ وَأَحْرَزَ ثَوَابَهَا كَمَا نَصَّ عَلَيْهِ مُحَمَّدٌ وِفَاقًا لِصَاحِبَيْهِ، وَكَذَا لَوْ أَدْرَكَ التَّشَهُّدَ يَكُونُ مُدْرِكًا لِفَضِيلَتِهَا عَلَى قَوْلِهِمْ. قَالَ: وَهَذَا يُعَكِّرُ عَلَى مَا قِيلَ إنَّهُ لَوْ رَجَا إدْرَاكَ التَّشَهُّدِ لَا يَأْتِي بِسُنَّةِ الْفَجْرِ عَلَى قَوْلِ مُحَمَّدٍ. وَالْحَقُّ خِلَافُهُ لِنَصِّ مُحَمَّدٍ عَلَى مَا يُنَاقِضُهُ اهـ أَيْ لِأَنَّ الْمَدَارَ هُنَا عَلَى إدْرَاكِ فَضْلِ الْجَمَاعَةِ، وَقَدْ اتَّفَقُوا عَلَى إدْرَاكِهِ بِإِدْرَاكِ التَّشَهُّدِ

 

Ibn Nujaym, Bahr Rai’q, Kitabus Salah, Baab idraakil Faridah, Vol2, Pg 79

قَالَ فِي الشرنبلالية الَّذِي تَحَرَّرَ عِنْدِي أَنَّهُ يَأْتِي بِالسُّنَّةِ إذَا كَانَ يُدْرِكُهُ وَلَوْ فِي التَّشَهُّدِ بِالِاتِّفَاقِ فِيمَا بَيْنَ مُحَمَّدٍ وَشَيْخَيْهِ وَلَا يَتَقَيَّدُ بِإِدْرَاكِ رَكْعَةٍ وَتَفْرِيعُ الْخِلَافِ هُنَا عَلَى خِلَافِهِمْ فِي مُدْرِكِ تَشَهُّدِ الْجُمُعَةِ غَيْرُ ظَاهِرٍ لِأَنَّ الْمَدَارَ هُنَا عَلَى إدْرَاكِ فَضْلِ الْجَمَاعَةِ وَهُوَ حَاصِلٌ بِإِدْرَاكِ التَّشَهُّدِ بِالِاتِّفَاقِ نَصَّ عَلَى الِاتِّفَاقِ الْكَمَالُ لَا كَمَا ظَنَّهُ بَعْضُهُمْ مِنْ أَنَّهُ لَمْ يُحْرِزْ فَضْلَهَا عِنْدَ مُحَمَّدٍ لِقَوْلِهِ فِي مُدْرِكِ أَقَلِّ الرَّكْعَةِ الثَّانِيَةِ مِنْ الْجُمُعَةِ لَمْ يُدْرِكْ الْجُمُعَةَ حَتَّى يَبْنِيَ عَلَيْهَا الظُّهْرَ

 

[3] Kasān, Badā’i Sanāi, Kitāb al-Salah,  Fasl Sharait jawaz Sa’ee, vol 1 p. 101

وَقَالَ بَعْضُ أَصْحَابِنَا: إنَّ عَلَيْهِ الْإِعَادَةَ وَإِنَّهُ غَيْرُ سَدِيدٍ؛ لِأَنَّ فِي اللُّزُومِ بِدُونِ الْعِلْمِ بِهِ ضَرَرًا فِي حَقِّهِ وَحَرَجًا، وَلِهَذَا لَمْ يَصِحَّ عَزْلُ الْوَكِيلِ بِدُونِ الْعِلْمِ بِهِ كَذَا هَذَا، وَعَلَى هَذَا يُبْنَى أَيْضًا اقْتِدَاءُ الْمُسَافِرِ بِالْمُقِيمِ فِي الْوَقْتِ أَنَّهُ يَصِحُّ، وَيَنْقَلِبُ فَرْضُهُ أَرْبَعًا عِنْدَ عَامَّةِ الْعُلَمَاءِ.

وَقَالَ بَعْضُ النَّاسِ لَا يَنْقَلِبُ وَقَالَ مَالِكٌ: إنْ أَدْرَكَ مَعَ الْإِمَامِ رَكْعَةً فَصَاعِدًا يَنْقَلِبْ فَرْضُهُ أَرْبَعًا وَإِنْ أَدْرَكَ مَا دُونَ الرَّكْعَةِ لَا يَنْقَلِبُ بِأَنْ اقْتَدَى بِهِ فِي السَّجْدَةِ الْأَخِيرَةِ أَوْ بَعْدَ مَا رَفَعَ رَأْسَهُ مِنْهَا، وَالصَّحِيحُ: قَوْلُ الْعَامَّةِ؛ لِأَنَّهُ لَمَّا اقْتَدَى بِهِ صَارَ تَبَعًا لَهُ؛ لِأَنَّ مُتَابَعَتَهُ وَاجِبَةٌ عَلَيْهِ.

قَالَ – صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ -: «إنَّمَا جُعِلَ الْإِمَامُ لِيُؤْتَمَّ بِهِ فَلَا تَخْتَلِفُوا عَلَيْهِ» وَالْأَدَاءُ ” أَعْنِي الصَّلَاةَ فِي الْوَقْتِ ” مِمَّا يَحْتَمِلُ التَّغْيِيرَ إلَى الْكَمَالِ إذَا وُجِدَ دَلِيلُ التَّغْيِيرِ، أَلَا تَرَى أَنَّهُ تَتَغَيَّرُ نِيَّةُ الْإِقَامَةِ فِي الْوَقْتِ؟ وَقَدْ وُجِدَ هَهُنَا دَلِيلُ التَّغْيِيرِ ” وَهُوَ التَّبَعِيَّةُ “، فَيَتَغَيَّرُ فَرْضُهُ أَرْبَعًا فَصَارَ صَلَاةُ الْمُقْتَدِي مِثْلَ صَلَاةِ الْإِمَامِ فَصَحَّ اقْتِدَاؤُهُ بِهِ

 

CBD Oil permissible or not?

jknfatawa1 Lawful & Unlawful

7th December 2020

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: Is one allowed to use CBD in infused skincare products or as drinking?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer: In reference to your query, CBD is one of many compounds, known as cannabinoids, that comes from cannabis plant. Cannabis plants are of two types, hemp plant and marijuana plant; each one cultivated for different purposes. Unlike the marijuana, hemp plant is grown for industrial use and not bred to produce intoxication such as THC.[1] The ruling on CBD products therefore depends on the type of product and its usage, in other words whether for external use such as cream or for drinking.

If CBD oil is consumed then the ruling depends on the level of Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) is present or not. THC is an intoxicating element that makes one high.[2] If no THC is present or such negligible amounts that is not intoxicating then it is permissible to drink. If it does contain it to the degree that it makes one high then it will be haram to consume.[3] If there is a dire necessity and a Muslim doctor has advised to use this product and no other halal alternative medicine is present to the equal effect then the principle of dharurah will apply and thus permissible to consume.[4] It is important to note that if there is a halal alternative available then you cannot drink it.

If it is for external use such as creams and ointments then it will be permissible to use CBD infused skincare products even with THC because in this case you are not drinking it.

Note: Some evidences suggest that topical (external) application of THC to the skin may cause mild intoxication but not to the degree that causes high like oral intake. The ruling of intoxication is generally based on oral consumption (drinking) as opposed to external application. If on the account of piety a person wishes to refrain and just use CBD creams that don’t contain THC, then that is even better.

 

[Allāh Knows Best]

 

Written by:  Apa Zulaikha          Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam        

JKN Fatawa Department

 

 

[1] See https://www.medicalnewstoday.com/articles/317221.php

[2] See, https://www.medicalnewstoday.com/articles/317221.php https://www.healthline.com/health/cbd-vs-thc and,  https://cbdoilreview.org/cbd-cannabidiol/thc-cbd/

[3] Durrul Mukhtār wa Hashiyah Ibn Ābideen Shāmi, Kitābul Hadhar wa Ibaha, vol 6, page 754

ﻭﻳﺤﺮﻡ ﺃﻛﻞ اﻟﺒﻨﺞ ﻭاﻝﺣﺸﻴﺶﺓ(

(ﻗﻮﻟﻪ ﻭﻳﺤﺮﻡ ﺃﻛﻞ اﻟﺒﻨﺞ) ﻫﻮ ﺑﺎﻟﻔﺘﺢ: ﻧﺒﺎﺕ ﻳﺴﻤﻰ ﻓﻲ اﻟﻌﺮﺑﻴﺔ ﺷﻴﻜﺮاﻥ، ﻳﺼﺪﻉ ﻭﻳﺴﺒﺖ ﻭﻳﺨﻠﻂ اﻟﻌﻘﻞ ﻛﻤﺎ ﻓﻲ اﻟﺘﺬﻛﺮﺓ ﻟﻠﺸﻴﺦ ﺩاﻭﺩ. ﻭﺯاﺩ ﻓﻲ اﻟﻘﺎﻣﻮﺱ: ﻭﺃﺧﺒﺜﻪ اﻷﺣﻤﺮ ﺛﻢ اﻷﺳﻮﺩ ﻭﺃﺳﻠﻤﻪ اﻷﺑﻴﺾ، ﻭﻓﻴﻪ: اﻟﺴﺒﺖ ﻳﻮﻡ اﻷﺳﺒﻮﻉ، ﻭاﻟﺮﺟﻞ اﻟﻜﺜﻴﺮ اﻟﻨﻮﻡ، ﻭاﻟﻤﺴﺒﺖ: اﻟﺬﻱ ﻻ ﻳﺘﺤﺮﻙ. ﻭﻓﻲ اﻟﻘﻬﺴﺘﺎﻧﻲ: ﻫﻮ ﺃﺣﺪ ﻧﻮﻋﻲ ﺷﺠﺮ اﻟﻘﻨﺐ، ﺣﺮاﻡ ﻷﻧﻪ ﻳﺰﻳﻞ اﻟﻌﻘﻞ، ﻭﻋﻠﻴﻪ اﻟﻔﺘﻮﻯ، ﺑﺨﻼﻑ ﻧﻮﻉ ﺁﺧﺮ ﻣﻨﻪ ﻓﺈﻧﻪ ﻣﺒﺎﺡ ﻛﺎﻷﻓﻴﻮﻥ ﻷﻧﻪ ﻭﺇﻥ اﺧﺘﻞ اﻟﻌﻘﻞ ﺑﻪ ﻻ ﻳﺰﻭﻝ، ﻭﻋﻠﻴﻪ ﻳﺤﻤﻞ ﻣﺎ ﻓﻲ اﻟﻬﺪاﻳﺔ ﻭﻏﻴﺮﻫﺎ ﻣﻦ ﺇﺑﺎﺣﺔ اﻟﺒﻨﺞ ﻛﻤﺎ ﻓﻲ ﺷﺮﺡ اﻟﻠﺒﺎﺏ اﻩـ.

ﺃﻗﻮﻝ: ﻫﺬا ﻏﻴﺮ ﻇﺎﻫﺮ، ﻷﻥ ﻣﺎ ﻳﺨﻞ اﻟﻌﻘﻞ ﻻ ﻳﺠﻮﺯ ﺃﻳﻀﺎ ﺑﻼ ﺷﺒﻬﺔ ﻓﻜﻴﻒ ﻳﻘﺎﻝ ﺇﻧﻪ ﻣﺒﺎﺡ: ﺑﻞ اﻟﺼﻮاﺏ ﺃﻥ ﻣﺮاﺩ ﺻﺎﺣﺐ اﻟﻬﺪاﻳﺔ ﻭﻏﻴﺮﻩ ﺇﺑﺎﺣﺔ ﻗﻠﻴﻠﻪ ﻟﻠﺘﺪاﻭﻱ ﻭﻧﺤﻮﻩ ﻭﻣﻦ ﺻﺮﺡ ﺑﺤﺮﻣﺘﻪ ﺃﺭاﺩ ﺑﻪ اﻟﻘﺪﺭ اﻟﻤﺴﻜﺮ ﻣﻨﻪ، ﻳﺪﻝ ﻋﻠﻴﻪ ﻣﺎ ﻓﻲ ﻏﺎﻳﺔ اﻟﺒﻴﺎﻥ ﻋﻦ ﺷﺮﺡ ﺷﻴﺦ اﻹﺳﻼﻡ: ﺃﻛﻞ ﻗﻠﻴﻞ اﻟﺴﻘﻤﻮﻧﻴﺎ ﻭاﻟﺒﻨﺞ ﻣﺒﺎﺡ ﻟﻠﺘﺪاﻭﻱ، ﻣﺎ ﺯاﺩ ﻋﻠﻰ ﺫﻟﻚ ﺇﺫا ﻛﺎﻥ ﻳﻘﺘﻞ ﺃﻭ ﻳﺬﻫﺐ اﻟﻌﻘﻞ ﺣﺮاﻡ اﻩـ ﻓﻬﺬا ﺻﺮﻳﺢ ﻓﻴﻤﺎ ﻗﻠﻨﺎﻩ ﻣﺆﻳﺪ ﻟﻤﺎ ﺳﺒﻖ ﺑﺤﺜﻨﺎﻩ ﻣﻦ ﺗﺨﺼﻴﺺ ﻣﺎ ﻣﺮ ﻣﻦ ﺃﻥ ﻣﺎ ﺃﺳﻜﺮ ﻛﺜﻴﺮﻩ ﺣﺮﻡ ﻗﻠﻴﻠﻪ ﺑﺎﻟﻤﺎﺋﻌﺎﺕ، ﻭﻫﻜﺬا ﻳﻘﻮﻝ ﻓﻲ ﻏﻴﺮﻩ ﻣﻦ اﻷﺷﻴﺎء اﻟﺠﺎﻣﺪﺓ اﻟﻤﻀﺮﺓ ﻓﻲ اﻟﻌﻘﻞ ﺃﻭ ﻏﻴﺮﻩ، ﻳﺤﺮﻡ ﺗﻨﺎﻭﻝ اﻟﻘﺪﺭ اﻟﻤﻀﺮ ﻣﻨﻬﺎ ﺩﻭﻥ اﻟﻘﻠﻴﻞ اﻟﻨﺎﻓﻊ، ﻷﻥ ﺣﺮﻣﺘﻬﺎ ﻟﻴﺴﺖ ﻟﻌﻴﻨﻬﺎ ﺑﻞ ﻟﻀﺮﺭﻫﺎ. ﻭﻓﻲ ﺃﻭﻝ ﻃﻼﻕ اﻟﺒﺤﺮ: ﻣﻦ ﻏﺎﺏ ﻋﻘﻠﻪ ﺑﺎﻟﺒﻨﺞ ﻭاﻷﻓﻴﻮﻥ ﻳﻘﻊ ﻃﻼﻗﻪ ﺇﺫا اﺳﺘﻌﻤﻠﻪ ﻟﻠﻬﻮ ﻭﺇﺩﺧﺎﻝ اﻵﻓﺎﺕ ﻗﺼﺪا ﻟﻜﻮﻧﻪ 

ﻣﻌﺼﻴﺔ، ﻭﺇﻥ ﻛﺎﻥ ﻟﻠﺘﺪاﻭﻱ ﻓﻼ ﻟﻌﺪﻣﻬﺎ، ﻛﺬا ﻓﻲ ﻓﺘﺢ اﻟﻘﺪﻳﺮ، ﻭﻫﻮ ﺻﺮﻳﺢ ﻓﻲ ﺣﺮﻣﺔ اﻟﺒﻨﺞ ﻭاﻷﻓﻴﻮﻥ ﻻ ﻟﻠﺪﻭاء. ﻭﻓﻲ اﻟﺒﺰاﺯﻳﺔ: ﻭاﻟﺘﻌﻠﻴﻞ ﻳﻨﺎﺩﻱ ﺑﺤﺮﻣﺘﻪ ﻻ ﻟﻠﺪﻭاء اﻩـ ﻛﻼﻡ اﻟﺒﺤﺮ. ﻭﺟﻌﻞ ﻓﻲ اﻟﻨﻬﺮ ﻫﺬا اﻟﺘﻔﺼﻴﻞ ﻫﻮ اﻟﺤﻖ

 

[4] Durrul Mukhtār wa Hashiyah Ibn Ābideen Shāmi, Kitābul Hadhar wa Ibaha, vol 1, page 210

فُرُوعٌ] اُخْتُلِفَ فِي التَّدَاوِي بِالْمُحَرَّمِ وَظَاهِرُ الْمَذْهَبِ الْمَنْعُ كَمَا فِي رَضَاعٍ الْبَحْرُ، لَكِنْ نَقَلَ الْمُصَنِّفُ ثَمَّةَ وَهُنَا عَنْ الْحَاوِي: وَقِيلَ يُرَخَّصُ إذَا عُلِمَ فِيهِ الشِّفَاءُ وَلَمْ يُعْلَمْ دَوَاءٌ آخَرُ كَمَا رُخِّصَ الْخَمْرُ لِلْعَطْشَانِ وَعَلَيْهِ الْفَتْوَى

مَطْلَبٌ فِي التَّدَاوِي بِالْمُحَرَّمِ (قَوْلُهُ اُخْتُلِفَ فِي التَّدَاوِي بِالْمُحَرَّمِ) فَفِي النِّهَايَةِ عَنْ الذَّخِيرَةِ يَجُوزُ إنْ عَلِمَ فِيهِ شِفَاءً وَلَمْ يَعْلَمْ دَوَاءً آخَرَ. وَفِي الْخَانِيَّةِ فِي مَعْنَى قَوْلِهِ – عَلَيْهِ الصَّلَاةُ وَالسَّلَامُ – «إنَّ اللَّهَ لَمْ يَجْعَلْ شِفَاءَكُمْ فِيمَا حَرَّمَ عَلَيْكُمْ» كَمَا رَوَاهُ الْبُخَارِيُّ أَنَّ مَا فِيهِ شِفَاءٌ لَا بَأْسَ بِهِ كَمَا يَحِلُّ الْخَمْرُ لِلْعَطْشَانِ فِي الضَّرُورَةِ،…….. وَلِذَا قَالَ وَالِدِي فِي شَرْحِ الدُّرَرِ: إنَّ قَوْلَهُ لَا لِلتَّدَاوِي مَحْمُولٌ عَلَى الْمَظْنُونِ وَإِلَّا فَجَوَازُهُ بِالْيَقِينِيِّ اتِّفَاقٌ كَمَا صَرَّحَ بِهِ فِي الْمُصَفَّى.

 

Do Benefits Absolve the Husband’s Financial Obligation?

jknfatawa1 Marriage

4th December 2020

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question:  We know that it is necessary for the husband to provide financial maintenance (nafaqah) for his wife. If she receives money from the government e.g. child tax credit and child benefit and it suffices for her needs nafaqah (financial expenses) as well as for the children, does this absolve the husband’s obligation of Islamic nafaqah obligation?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

Thank you for your question. In reference to your query, Islām as placed the financial obligation upon to the husband through nafaqah (e.g. money, shelter, food & clothing) provision for his wife and children.[1] Allāh Almighty has elevated his status because he secures their financial needs by spending on them from his own wealth. The reasons for their eligibility of nafaqah is different which leads to different rulings between them. The wife is eligible due to ihtibaas (confining herself for him by relocating to his home to fulfil his needs).[2] This means that he must provide for her regardless if she is rich or poor.[3] By rich it obviously implies that she already has her own personal money other than what he gives to her. So, any benefits she receives from the government for herself that suffices for her needs does not absolve the husband’s obligation in providing maintenance for her. She is not dutybound Islamically to spend that money on herself,[4] for instance using that for personal savings etc.

This was regarding nafaqah for the wife. The nafaqah for his children whether male or female is due to his wilayah (guardianship) and ma’oonah (financial responsibility) over them. A general overview of the principles related to child maintenance in Islām is that it is only necessary for the father to provide financial maintenance for his children if they are unable to work, for instance  due to age or disability, or don’t receive any source of income. If they are able to work or receive other source of income then their nafaqah won’t be compulsory on him.[5] Child benefit and child tax credit that is provided by the state is so to help the parents to cover financial cost for the children; hence it should be used for this purpose. As the state is helping the father with the nafaqah of the children, if it suffices for their basic needs then his obligation is now dropped. If it doesn’t suffice then he must provide additional support.

 

[Allāh Knows Best]

 

 

Written by:  Apa Sajeda          Reviewed by: Mufti Abdul Waheed

Attested by: Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam      

JKN Fatawa Department

 

 

[1]Al-Quran,Surah Baqarah, Ayat 233

وَعَلَى الۡمَوۡلُوۡدِ لَهٗ رِزۡقُهُنَّ وَكِسۡوَتُهُنَّ بِالۡمَعۡرُوۡفِ

 

Ibn Abideen, Radul Muhtar Ala Durril Mukhtar. Baab Al-Nafaqah, Vol 3, Pg 571-2.

هِيَ لُغَةً: مَا يُنْفِقُهُ الْإِنْسَانُ عَلَى عِيَالِهِ.وَشَرْعًا: (هِيَ الطَّعَامُ وَالْكُسْوَةُ وَالسُّكْنَى) وَعُرْفًا هِيَ: الطَّعَامُ (وَنَفَقَةُ الْغَيْرِ تَجِبُ عَلَى الْغَيْرِ بِأَسْبَابٍ ثَلَاثَةٍ: زَوْجِيَّةٌ، وَقَرَابَةٌ، وَمِلْكٌ) بَدَأَ بِالْأَوَّلِ لِمُنَاسِبَةِ مَا مَرَّ أَوْ؛ لِأَنَّهَا أَصْلُ الْوَلَدِ (فَتَجِبُ لِلزَّوْجَةِ) بِنِكَاحٍ صَحِيحٍ،

 

[2] Ibn Nujaym. Bahr al Ra’iq. Baab Al-Nafaqah, Vol 4, Pg 188.

وَلِأَنَّ النَّفَقَةَ جَزَاءُ الِاحْتِبَاسِ فَكُلُّ مَنْ كَانَ مَحْبُوسًا بِحَقٍّ مَقْصُودٍ لِغَيْرِهِ كَانَتْ نَفَقَتُهُ عَلَيْهِ أَصْلُهُ الْقَاضِي

 

Ibn Abideen, Radul Muhtar Ala Durril Mukhtar. Baab Al-Nafaqah, Vol 3, Pg 573.

(فَتَجِبُ لِلزَّوْجَةِ) بِنِكَاحٍ صَحِيحٍ، فَلَوْ بَانَ فَسَادُهُ أَوْ بُطْلَانُهُ رَجَعَ بِمَا أَخَذَتْهُ مِنْ النَّفَقَةِ بِحُرٍّ (عَلَى زَوْجِهَا) ؛ لِأَنَّهَا جَزَاءُ الِاحْتِبَاسِ، وَكُلُّ مَحْبُوسٍ لِمَنْفَعَةِ غَيْرِهِ يَلْزَمُهُ نَفَقَتُهُ

(قَوْلُهُ وَكُلُّ مَحْبُوسٍ إلَخْ) هَذِهِ كُبْرَى قِيَاسٍ مِنْ الشَّكْلِ الْأَوَّلِ طُوِيَتْ صُغْرَاهُ لِلْعِلْمِ بِهَا مِنْ التَّعْلِيلِ السَّابِقِ، وَالتَّقْدِيرُ: الزَّوْجَةُ مَحْبُوسَةٌ لِمَنْفَعَةِ الزَّوْجِ إلَخْ، وَيَنْتِجُ لُزُومُ نَفَقَتِهَا عَلَيْهِ فَافْهَمْ.

[3] Ibn Nujaym. Bahr al Ra’iq. Baab Al-Nafaqah, Vol 4, Pg 244.

اطْلَقَ فِي الزَّوْجَةِ فَشَمِلَ الْمُسْلِمَةَ وَالْكَافِرَةَ الْغَنِيَّةَ وَالْفَقِيرَةَ وَأَطْلَقَ فِي الزَّوْجِ فَشَمِلَ الْغَنِيَّ وَالْفَقِيرَ وَالصَّغِيرَ وَالْكَبِيرَ

 

[4] Ibn Nujaym. Bahr al Ra’iq. Baab Al-Nafaqah, Vol 4, Pg 194.

وَمِنْهَا أَنَّهَا لَوْ كَانَ لَهَا أَمْتِعَةٌ مِنْ فُرُشٍ وَنَحْوِهَا لَا يَسْقُطُ عَنْ الزَّوْجِ ذَلِكَ، بَلْ يَجِبُ عَلَيْهِ مَا ذَكَرْنَاهُ وَإِنْ كَانَ لَهَا أَمْتِعَةٌ فَلَا يَلْزَمُهَا أَنْ تَلْبَسَ مَتَاعَهَا وَلَا أَنْ تَنَامَ عَلَى فِرَاشِهَا فَبِالْأَوْلَى أَنْ لَا يَلْزَمَهَا أَنْ تَفْرِشَ مَتَاعَهَا لِيَنَامَ عَلَيْهِ أَوْ يَجْلِسَ عَلَيْهِ

 

Ibn Abideen, Radul Muhtar Ala Durril Mukhtar. Baab Al-Hiba, Vol 5, Pg 687.

 (هي) لغة: التفضل على الغير ولو غير مال. وشرعا: (تمليك العين مجانا) أي بلا عوض لا أن عدم العوض شرط فيه

 

[5]Ibn Abideen, Radul Muhtar Ala Durril Mukhtar. Baab Al-Nafaqah, Vol 3, Pg 615.

 أَمَّا الصَّغِيرُ فَعَلَى أَبِيهِ خَاصَّةً بِلَا خِلَافٍ: قَالَ الشُّرُنْبُلَالِيُّ: وَوَجْهُ الْفَرْقِ أَنَّهُ اجْتَمَعَ لِلْأَبِ فِي الصَّغِيرِ وِلَايَةٌ وَمُؤْنَةٌ حَتَّى وَجَبَ عَلَيْهِ صَدَقَةُ فِطْرِهِ فَاخْتَصَّ بِلُزُومِ نَفَقَتِهِ عَلَيْهِ، وَلَا كَذَلِكَ الْكَبِيرُ لِانْعِدَامِ الْوِلَايَةِ فَتُشَارِكُهُ الْأُمُّ. اهـ. ط وَصَرَّحَ الْعَلَّامَةُ قَاسِمٌ بِأَنَّ عَدَمَ الْفَرْقِ بَيْنَهُمَا هُوَ ظَاهِرُ الرِّوَايَةِ، وَبِأَنَّ عَلَيْهِ الْفَتْوَى فَلِذَا تَبِعَهُ الشَّارِحُ.

Jurists have mentioned that if the girl is earning for herself then the obligation of support is not dropped from the father. See Ibn Abideen, Radul Muhtar Ala Durril Mukhtar. Baab Al-Nafaqah, Vol 3, Pg 614.

(قَوْلُهُ لِوَلَدِهِ الْكَبِيرِ إلَخْ) فَإِذَا طَلَبَ مِنْ الْقَاضِي أَنْ يَفْرِضَ لَهُ النَّفَقَةَ عَلَى أَبِيهِ أَجَابَهُ وَيَدْفَعُهَا إلَيْهِ؛ لِأَنَّ ذَلِكَ حَقُّهُ وَلَهُ وِلَايَةُ الِاسْتِيفَاءِ ذَخِيرَةٌ، وَعَلَيْهِ فَلَوْ قَالَ لَهُ الْأَبُ: أَنَا أُطْعِمُك وَلَا أَدْفَعُ إلَيْك لَا يُجَابُ، وَكَذَا الْحُكْمُ فِي نَفَقَةِ كُلِّ مَحْرَمٍ بَحْرٌ (قَوْلُهُ كَأُنْثَى مُطْلَقًا) أَيْ وَلَوْ لَمْ يَكُنْ بِهَا زَمَانَةٌ تَمْنَعُهَا عَنْ الْكَسْبِ فَمُجَرَّدُ الْأُنُوثَةِ عَجْزٌ إلَّا إذَا كَانَ لَهَا زَوْجٌ فَنَفَقَتُهَا عَلَيْهِ مَا دَامَتْ زَوْجَةً وَهَلْ إذَا نَشَزَتْ عَنْ طَاعَتِهِ تَجِبُ لَهَا النَّفَقَةُ عَلَى أَبِيهَا مَحَلُّ تَرَدُّدٍ فَتَأَمَّلْ، وَتَقَدَّمَ أَنَّهُ لَيْسَ لِلْأَبِ أَنْ يُؤْجِرَهَا فِي عَمَلٍ أَوْ خِدْمَةٍ، وَأَنَّهُ لَوْ كَانَ لَهَا كَسْبٌ لَا تَجِبُ عَلَيْهِ

 

Fatawa Hindiyyah, Kitāb al-Talaq, Bāb Nafaqat, vol 1, p. 561-2

…..نَفَقَةُ الْأَوْلَادِ الصِّغَارِ عَلَى الْأَبِ لَا يُشَارِكُهُ فِيهَا أَحَدٌ كَذَا فِي الْجَوْهَرَةِ النَّيِّرَةِ

الذُّكُورُ مِنْ الْأَوْلَادِ إذَا بَلَغُوا حَدَّ الْكَسْبِ، وَلَمْ يَبْلُغُوا فِي أَنْفُسِهِمْ يَدْفَعُهُمْ الْأَبُ إلَى عَمَلٍ لِيَكْسِبُوا، أَوْ يُؤَاجِرَهُمْ وَيُنْفِقَ  عَلَيْهِمْ مِنْ أُجْرَتِهِمْ وَكَسْبِهِمْ، وَأَمَّا الْإِنَاثُ فَلَيْسَ لِلْأَبِ أَنْ يُؤَاجِرَهُنَّ فِي عَمَلٍ، أَوْ خِدْمَةٍ كَذَا فِي الْخُلَاصَةِ

وَلَا يَجِبُ عَلَى الْأَبِ نَفَقَةُ الذُّكُورِ الْكِبَارِ إلَّا أَنَّ الْوَلَدَ يَكُونُ عَاجِزًا عَنْ الْكَسْبِ لِزَمَانَةٍ، أَوْ مَرَضٍ وَمَنْ يَقْدِرُ عَلَى الْعَمَلِ لَكِنْ لَا يُحْسِنُ الْعَمَلَ فَهُوَ بِمَنْزِلَةِ الْعَاجِزِ كَذَا فِي فَتَاوَى قَاضِي خَانْ.