Author: jknfatawa1

Leasing out a Property to a Non-Muslim Couple to open an Alcohol Served Restaurant

jknfatawa1 Finance
Leasing out a Property to a Non-Muslim Couple to open an Alcohol Served Restaurant

21ST January 2017

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: Is it permissible to let my place to a Romanian Non-Muslim couple for them to open a Restaurant? They have informed me they will be selling Alcohol and I also assume there will be meat on the menu which will not be halal. Every customer will be served with food but not every customer will have a drink. Please clarify.

 الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

In reference to your case scenario, Imām Abū Hanīfah rahimahullah permitted a Muslim living in a predominant Non-Muslim region (which still remains under Muslim sovereignty) to lease out a property to a non-Muslim who intends to sell unlawful items such as alcohol. His line of argument is that trading in alcohol is the act of the leaseholder which is permitted in their religion, thus severing the Muslim landlord’s connection from the Non-Muslim’s act. As he bears no liability of the lease holder’s actions, the Muslim owner’s monthly rental from such property is Halal as he is charging for the usufruct (manfa’ah) of the property. Contrarily, his prominent students, Imām Abū Yusuf rahimahullah and Imām Muhammad rahimahullah disallow it all together even to a non-Muslim because it is tantamount to assisting upon sin, which has been clearly prohibited in the Shari’ah.[1]

It must be remembered that Imām Abū Hanīfah’s rahimahullah ruling was issued in an Islamic state where there was no fear of widespread of fitna among Muslims if non-Muslims transacted it among themselves. Due to the widespread consumption of alcohol nowadays, it is not unjustified for scholars adopting the opinion of Imām Sāhib’s two students for discouraging Muslims leasing out a property in which alcohol is being sold,[2] yet, on the other hand, the Shari’ah does not intend to burden its people also and takes circumstances into consideration. As there is no clear consensus on this matter, in your case in particular, if they do intend to sell alcohol in their restaurant along with other unlawful meat then there is no harm in following Imām Abū Hanifah’s rahimahullah opinion of permissibility and the rent you receive will be lawful, regardless if majority of the income comes from the alcohol selling or not. Consider it that the monthly revenue is in exchange for leasing out a property and what they do is their individual business. This is the fatwa position otherwise the Taqwa position is to avoid it altogether in due consideration of his two student’s position.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

[1] Bahr Raiq, Kitāb al-Karahiyyah, p. 372 vol 8

قَالَ: – رَحِمَهُ اللَّهُ – (وَإِجَارَةُ بَيْتٍ لِيُتَّخَذَ بَيْتَ نَارٍ أَوْ بِيعَةً أَوْ كَنِيسَةً أَوْ يُبَاعَ فِيهِ خَمْرٌ بِالسَّوَادِ) يَعْنِي جَازَ إجَارَةُ الْبَيْتِ لِكَافِرٍ لِيُتَّخَذُ مَعْبَدًا أَوْ بَيْتَ نَارٍ لِلْمَجُوسِ أَوْ يُبَاعَ فِيهِ خَمْرٌ فِي السَّوَادِ وَهَذَا قَوْلُ الْإِمَامِ وَقَالَا: يُكْرَهُ كُلُّ ذَلِكَ لِقَوْلِهِ تَعَالَى {وَتَعَاوَنُوا عَلَى الْبِرِّ وَالتَّقْوَى وَلا تَعَاوَنُوا عَلَى الإِثْمِ وَالْعُدْوَانِ} [المائدة: 2] وَلَهُ أَنَّ الْإِجَارَةَ عَلَى مَنْفَعَةِ الْبَيْتِ وَلِهَذَا تَجِبُ الْأُجْرَةُ بِمُجَرَّدِ التَّسْلِيمِ وَلَا مَعْصِيَةَ فِيهِ وَإِنَّمَا الْمَعْصِيَةُ بِفِعْلِ الْمُسْتَأْجِرِ وَهُوَ مُخْتَارٌ فِيهِ فَقَطَعَ نِسْبَةَ ذَلِكَ إلَى الْمُؤَجِّرِ وَصَارَ كَبَيْعِ الْجَارِيَةِ لِمَنْ لَا يَسْتَبْرِئُهَا أَوْ يَأْتِيهَا فِي دُبُرِهَا أَوْ بَيْعِ الْغُلَامِ مِمَّنْ يَلُوطُ بِهِ وَالدَّلِيلُ عَلَيْهِ أَنَّهُ لَوْ أَجَّرَهُ لِلسُّكْنَى جَازَ وَلَا بُدَّ فِيهِ مِنْ عِبَادَتِهِ وَإِنَّمَا قَيَّدَهُ بِالسَّوَادِ؛ لِأَنَّهُمْ لَا يُمَكَّنُونَ مِنْ ذَلِكَ فِي الْأَمْصَارِ وَلَا يُمَكَّنُونَ مِنْ إظْهَارِ بَيْعِ الْخَمْرِ وَالْخِنْزِيرِ فِي الْأَمْصَارِ لِظُهُورِ شَعَائِرِ الْإِسْلَامِ فَلَا يُعَارَضُ بِظُهُورِ شَعَائِرِ الْكُفْرِ قَالُوا فِي هَذَا سَوَادُ الْكُوفَةِ؛ لِأَنَّ غَالِبَ أَهْلِهَا أَهْلُ ذِمَّةٍ، وَأَمَّا فِي غَيْرِهَا فِيهَا شَعَائِرُ الْإِسْلَامِ ظَاهِرَةٌ فَلَا يُمَكَّنُونَ فِيهَا فِي الْأَصَحِّ

Ibn Ābideen Shāmi, Kitāb al-Hazr wal Ibāhat, p. 562-3 vol 9

(وَ) جَازَ (إجَارَةُ بَيْتٍ بِسَوَادِ الْكُوفَةِ) أَيْ قُرَاهَا (لَا بِغَيْرِهَا عَلَى الْأَصَحِّ) وَأَمَّا الْأَمْصَارُ وَقُرَى غَيْرِ الْكُوفَةِ فَلَا يُمَكَّنُونَ لِظُهُورِ شِعَارِ الْإِسْلَامِ فِيهَا وَخُصَّ سَوَادُ الْكُوفَةِ، لِأَنَّ غَالِبَ أَهْلِهَا أَهْلُ الذِّمَّةِ (لِيُتَّخَذَ بَيْتَ نَارٍ أَوْ كَنِيسَةً أَوْ بِيعَةً أَوْ يُبَاعَ فِيهِ الْخَمْرُ) وَقَالَا لَا يَنْبَغِي ذَلِكَ لِأَنَّهُ إعَانَةٌ عَلَى الْمَعْصِيَةِ وَبِهِ قَالَتْ الثَّلَاثَةُ زَيْلَعِيٌّ

Fatawa Hindiyyah Kitabul Ijārah p. 509 vol 4

[الْبَابُ السَّادِس عَشَرَ فِي مَسَائِلِ الشُّيُوعِ فِي الْإِجَارَةِ]

إذَا اسْتَأْجَرَ الذِّمِّيُّ مِنْ الْمُسْلِمِ بَيْتًا لِيَبِيعَ فِيهِ الْخَمْرَ جَازَ عِنْدَ أَبِي حَنِيفَةَ – رَحِمَهُ اللَّهُ تَعَالَى – خِلَافًا لَهُمَا. كَذَا فِي الْمُضْمَرَاتِ

[2] Maulāna Khalid Saifullah Rahmani, Kitāb al-Fatāwa p. 402, vol 5

Kaffarah for Multiple Oaths Breached

jknfatawa1 Miscellaneous

3rd January 2017

 

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: What is the ruling about a person who has taken multiple oaths in the past and breached every single one of them? The person has breached approximately 100 oaths. Is he now required to give Kaffarah for each oath breached or can he just give one kaffarah to suffice for all?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

The classical Hanafi scholars have differed whether breaching an oath multiple times results in multiple Kaffarahs or not. The mainstream position is that breaking multiple oaths does result in multiple Kaffarahs. In other words, to give Kaffarah for each broken oath is necessary.[1] This is because the penalty for breaching an oath is less severe compared to the Kaffarah of other acts of worship breached such as Ramadhān fast. The Kaffarah for breaching an oath is to either free a slave, clothe [or] feed ten poor people [miskeen] an adequate meal twice a day or alternatively give each miskeen money equivalent to fitrana. If one is unable to do any of the above [for instance, they themselves are poor] then as a last resort, fast for three consecutive days.

Nonetheless, Ibn Ābideen Shāmi rahimahullah (a renowned Hanafi jurist) quotes another opinion reported from Imām Muhammad rahimahullah (a renowned student of Imām Abū Haneefah rahimahullah) of a single Kaffarah incorporating multiple oaths breached. This means that one Kaffarah will suffice for the multiple oaths breached according to him.[2] The first position is the mainstream position whilst the second is the most lenient position.[3] Since the second position is also a valid position, in your particular case you may act on this; to give one Kaffarah to release yourself from the 100 oaths you breached only if giving Kaffarah 100 times proves difficult for you.

It must be noted that following the mainstream position is necessary but acting on the second opinion is valid only when genuine constraint is inevitable. However, sincere repentance from breaking the oath multiple times is also necessary.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

[1] Ibn Nujaym, Bahrur Rāiq, Kitābul Aymān, p.490 vol 4

وَلَمْ يَذْكُرْ الْمُصَنِّفُ مَسْأَلَةَ تَعْدَادِ الْكَفَّارَةِ لِتَعَدُّدِ الْيَمِينِ وَهِيَ مُهِمَّةٌ قَالَ فِي الظَّهِيرِيَّةِ وَلَوْ قَالَ: وَاَللَّهِ وَالرَّحْمَنِ وَالرَّحِيمِ لَا أَفْعَلُ كَذَا فَفَعَلَ فَفِي الرِّوَايَاتِ الظَّاهِرَةِ يَلْزَمُهُ ثَلَاثُ كَفَّارَاتٍ وَيَتَعَدَّدُ الْيَمِينُ بِتَعَدُّدِ الِاسْمِ لَكِنْ يُشْتَرَطُ تَخَلُّلُ حَرْفِ الْقَسَمِ وَرَوَى الْحَسَنُ عَنْ أَبِي حَنِيفَةَ أَنَّ عَلَيْهِ كَفَّارَةً وَاحِدَةً وَبِهِ أَخَذَ مَشَايِخُ سَمَرْقَنْدَ وَأَكْثَرُ الْمَشَايِخِ عَلَى ظَاهِرِ الرِّوَايَةِ وَلَوْ قَالَ: وَاَللَّهِ وَالرَّحْمَنِ لَا أَفْعَلُ كَذَا فَفَعَلَ يَلْزَمُهُ كَفَّارَتَانِ فِي قَوْلِهِمْ جَمِيعًا وَالْفَرْقُ عَلَى قَوْلِ أُولَئِكَ الْمَشَايِخِ أَنَّ الْوَاوَ إذَا اتَّحَدَ ذِكْرُهُ يَحْتَمِلُ أَنْ تَكُونَ وَاوَ عَطْفٍ وَيَحْتَمِلُ أَنْ تَكُونَ وَاوَ الْقَسَمِ وَلَا يَثْبُتُ الْقَسَمُ بِالشَّكِّ وَالِاحْتِمَالِ بِخِلَافِ مَا إذَا تَعَدَّدَ ذِكْرُهُ؛ لِأَنَّ أَحَدَهُمَا لِلْعَطْفِ وَالْآخَرَ لِلْقَسَمِ

Ibnul Humām, Fathul Qadeer Kitābul Aymān, p. 73 vol 5

[فُرُوعٌ: فِي تَعَدُّدِ الْيَمِينِ وَوَحْدَتِهَا وَغَيْرِ ذَلِكَ]

فَلَوْ قَالَ بِوَاوَيْنِ كَوَاللَّهِ وَوَالرَّحْمَنِ فَكَفَّارَتَانِ فِي قَوْلِهِمْ. وَرَوَى ابْنُ سِمَاعَةَ فِي غَيْرِ الْمُخْتَلِفَةِ عَنْ مُحَمَّدٍ نَحْوَ وَاَللَّهِ وَاَللَّهِ مُطْلَقًا هَذَا قَبْلَ ذِكْرِ الْجَوَابِ. أَمَّا لَوْ قَالَ وَاَللَّهِ لَا أَفْعَلُ كَذَا ثُمَّ أَعَادَهُ بِعَيْنِهِ فَكَفَّارَتَانِ، وَكَذَا لَوْ قَالَ لِامْرَأَتِهِ وَاَللَّهِ لَا أَقْرَبُك ثُمَّ قَالَ وَاَللَّهِ لَا أَقْرَبُك فَقَرُبَهَا مَرَّةً لَزِمَهُ كَفَّارَتَانِ، رُوِيَ ذَلِكَ عَنْ أَبِي يُوسُفَ – رَحِمَهُ اللَّهُ -، وَسَوَاءٌ كَانَ فِي مَجْلِسٍ أَوْ مَجَالِسَ. وَرَوَى الْحَسَنُ أَنَّهُ إنْ نَوَى بِالثَّانِي الْخَبَرَ عَنْ الْأَوَّلِ صَدَقَ دِيَانَةً، وَهِيَ عِبَارَةٌ مُتَسَاهَلٌ فِيهَا، وَإِنَّمَا أَرَادَ أَنْ يُرِيدَ بِالثَّانِي تَكْرَارَ الْأَوَّلِ وَتَأْكِيدَهُ، اخْتَارَ هَذَا الْإِمَامُ أَبُو بَكْرٍ مُحَمَّدُ بْنُ الْفَضْلِ قَالَ: فَإِنْ نَوَى بِهِ الْمُبَالَغَةَ أَوْ لَمْ يَنْوِ شَيْئًا يَلْزَمُهُ كَفَّارَتَانِ، وَقَدْ مَرَّ فِي الْإِيلَاءِ فِي التَّجْرِيدِ عَنْ أَبِي حَنِيفَةَ: إذَا حَلَفَ بِأَيْمَانٍ عَلَيْهِ لِكُلِّ يَمِينٍ كَفَّارَةٌ وَالْمَجْلِسُ وَالْمَجَالِسُ فِيهِ سَوَاءٌ. وَلَوْ قَالَ عَنَيْت بِالثَّانِي الْأَوَّلَ لَمْ يَسْتَقِمْ فِي الْيَمِينِ بِاَللَّهِ سُبْحَانَهُ وَتَعَالَى وَلَوْ حَلَفَ بِحِجَّةٍ أَوْ عُمْرَةٍ يَسْتَقِيمُ، وَهَذَا يُخَالِفُ مَا رَوَى الْحَسَنُ. وَفِي الْخُلَاصَةِ عَنْ نُسْخَةِ الْإِمَامِ السَّرَخْسِيِّ فِي أَيْمَانِ الْأَصْلِ: إذَا حَلَفَ عَلَى أَمْرٍ أَنْ لَا يَفْعَلَهُ ثُمَّ حَلَفَ فِي ذَلِكَ الْمَجْلِسِ أَوْ فِي مَجْلِسٍ آخَرَ أَنْ لَا يَفْعَلَهُ أَبَدًا ثُمَّ فَعَلَهُ إنْ نَوَى يَمِينًا مُبْتَدَأَةً أَوْ التَّشْدِيدَ أَوْ لَمْ يَنْوِ فَعَلَيْهِ كَفَّارَةُ يَمِينَيْنِ، أَمَّا إذَا نَوَى بِالثَّانِي الْأَوَّلَ فَعَلَيْهِ كَفَّارَةٌ وَاحِدَةٌ

[2] Ibn Ābideen Shāmi, Kitābul Aymān, p.486 vol 5

وَفِي الْبَحْرِ عَنْ الْخُلَاصَةِ وَالتَّجْرِيدِ: وَتَتَعَدَّدُ الْكَفَّارَةُ لِتَعَدُّدِ الْيَمِينِ، وَالْمَجْلِسِ وَالْمَجَالِسِ سَوَاءٌ

(قَوْلُهُ وَتَتَعَدَّدُ الْكَفَّارَةُ لِتَعَدُّدِ الْيَمِينِ) وَفِي الْبُغْيَةِ: كَفَّارَاتُ الْأَيْمَانِ إذَا كَثُرَتْ تَدَاخَلَتْ، وَيَخْرُجُ بِالْكَفَّارَةِ الْوَاحِدَةِ عَنْ عُهْدَةِ الْجَمِيعِ. وَقَالَ شِهَابُ الْأَئِمَّةِ: هَذَا قَوْلُ مُحَمَّدٍ. قَالَ صَاحِبُ الْأَصْلِ: هُوَ الْمُخْتَارُ عِنْدِي. اهـ. مَقْدِسِيٌّ، وَمِثْلُهُ فِي الْقُهُسْتَانِيُّ عَنْ الْمُنْيَةِ

[3] Ahsanul Fatawa, Kitābul Aymān vol 5 p. 495

 

Selling a Watch Acquired Through Gambling

jknfatawa1 Finance

20th December 2016

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: If a person won a watch through gambling and now regrets it, what should he do now? Can he sell it and if so, can a Muslim purchase it?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

In reference to your query, the watch received through gambling is considered unlawful possession. In principle, what you must do is return it or to dispose of it by giving it away to the neediest people without the intention of reward.[1] He cannot sell it, but because the watch is a merchandise that is permissible to use and fulfils the criteria of a shar’ee māl, if he does sell it on then the purchaser’s ownership is established.[2] The seller must give the money away into charity (without the intention of reward).[3]

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] Ibn Ābideen Shāmi Durrul Mukhtar wa hashiyah Ibn Abideen, Book of Zakāt, Bāb Zakāt al-Ghanam, p 218 vol 3

(قَوْلُهُ: كَمَا لَوْ كَانَ الْكُلُّ خَبِيثًا) فِي الْقُنْيَةِ لَوْ كَانَ الْخَبِيثُ نِصَابًا لَا يَلْزَمُهُ الزَّكَاةُ؛ لِأَنَّ الْكُلَّ وَاجِبُ التَّصَدُّقِ عَلَيْهِ فَلَا يُفِيدُ إيجَابَ التَّصَدُّقِ بِبَعْضِهِ

[2] Tabyeenul Haqaiq, Sharh Kanzu Daqaiq, Kitāb al-Buyoo, Bāb Bai Fāsid p 44 vol 4- shamila

وَفَاسِدٌ وَهُوَ مَشْرُوعٌ بِأَصْلِهِ دُونَ وَصْفِهِ وَهُوَ يُفِيدُ الْحُكْمَ إذَا اتَّصَلَ بِهِ الْقَبْضُ

Ibn Ābideen Shāmi Durrul Mukhtar wa hashiyah Ibn Abideen, Kitāb al-Buyoo, Bāb Bai Fāsid p 49 vol 5- shamila

(قَوْلُهُ الْمُرَادُ بِالْفَاسِدِ الْمَمْنُوعُ إلَخْ) قَدْ عَلِمْت أَنَّ الْفَاسِدَ مُبَايِنٌ لِلْبَاطِلِ؛؛ لِأَنَّ مَا كَانَ مَشْرُوعًا بِأَصْلِهِ فَقَطْ يُبَايِنُ مَا لَيْسَ بِمَشْرُوعٍ أَصْلًا. وَأَيْضًا حُكْمُ الْفَاسِدِ أَنَّهُ يُفِيدُ الْمِلْكَ بِالْقَبْضِ وَالْبَاطِلُ لَا يُفِيدُهُ أَصْلًا، وَتَبَايُنُ الْحُكْمَيْنِ دَلِيلُ تَبَايُنِهِمَا،

Tabyeenul Haqaiq, Sharh Kanzu Daqaiq, Kitāb al-Buyoo, Bāb Bai Fāsid p 61 vol 4- shamila

(فَصْلٌ) (قَبَضَ الْمُشْتَرِي الْمَبِيعَ فِي الْبَيْعِ الْفَاسِدِ بِأَمْرِ الْبَائِعِ وَكُلٌّ مِنْ عِوَضَيْهِ مَالٌ مَلَكَ الْمَبِيعَ بِقِيمَتِهِ) مَعْنَاهُ أَنَّهُ إذَا قَبَضَهُ مَلَكَهُ وَلَزِمَهُ قِيمَتُهُ إذَا كَانَ الْقَبْضُ بِأَمْرِ الْبَائِعِ وَفِي الْعَقْدِ عِوَضَانِ وَكُلُّ وَاحِدٍ مِنْهُمَا مَالٌ……… وَشَرَطَ أَنْ يَكُونَ فِي الْعَقْدِ عِوَضَانِ كُلُّ وَاحِدٍ مِنْهُمَا مَالٌ لِيَتَحَقَّقَ رُكْنُ الْبَيْعِ وَهُوَ مُبَادَلَةُ الْمَالِ بِالْمَالِ لِيَخْرُجَ عَنْهُ الْبَيْعُ بِالْمَيِّتَةِ وَنَحْوِهِ

[3] Ibn Ābideen Shāmi Kitāb al-Buyoo. Bāb Bai al-Fāsid, p.298 vol 7

(فَيَأْخُذُ) الْمُشْتَرِي (دَرَاهِمَ الثَّمَنِ بِعَيْنِهَا لَوْ قَائِمَةً، وَمِثْلَهَا لَوْ هَالِكَةً) بِنَاءً عَلَى تَعَيُّنِ الدَّرَاهِمِ فِي الْبَيْعِ الْفَاسِدِ وَهُوَ الْأَصَحُّ (وَ) إنَّمَا (طَابَ لِلْبَائِعِ مَا رَبِحَ) فِي الثَّمَنِ لَا عَلَى الرِّوَايَةِ الصَّحِيحَةِ الْمُقَابِلَةِ لِلْأَصَحِّ، بَلْ عَلَى الْأَصَحِّ أَيْضًا لِأَنَّ الثَّمَنَ فِي الْعَقْدِ الثَّانِي غَيْرُ مُتَعَيِّنٌ، وَلَا يَضُرُّ تَعْيِينُهُ فِي الْأَوَّلِ كَمَا أَفَادَهُ سَعْدِيٌّ (لَا) يَطِيبُ (لِلْمُشْتَرِي) مَا رَبِحَ فِي بَيْعٍ يَتَعَيَّنُ بِالتَّعْيِينِ بِأَنْ بَاعَهُ بِأَزْيَدَ لِتَعَلُّقِ الْعَقْدِ بِعَيْنِهِ فَتَمَكَّنَ الْخُبْثُ فِي الرِّبْحِ فَيَتَصَدَّقُ بِهِ

(قَوْلُ الْمُصَنِّفِ وَطَابَ لِلْبَائِعِ مَا رَبِحَ لَا لِلْمُشْتَرِي) صُورَةُ الْمَسْأَلَةِ مَا ذَكَرَهُ مُحَمَّدٌ فِي الْجَامِعِ الصَّغِيرِ: اشْتَرَى مِنْ رَجُلٍ جَارِيَةً بَيْعًا فَاسِدًا بِأَلْفِ دِرْهَمٍ وَتَقَابَضَا وَرَبِحَ كُلٌّ مِنْهُمَا فِيمَا قَبَضَ يَتَصَدَّقُ الَّذِي قَبَضَ الْجَارِيَةَ بِالرِّبْحِ وَيَطِيبُ الرِّبْحُ لِلَّذِي قَبَضَ الدَّرَاهِمَ

Making up for Salāhs Missed During Unconsciousness

jknfatawa1 Salah

19th December 2016

 

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: A sister was involved in a terrible car accident, leaving her in a terrible state. For three weeks she was coming in and out of consciousness. The question is must she to make up for her missed Salah of those three weeks when she recovers?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

In reference to the above case, it is unclear as to what you mean by coming in and out of consciousness. There is the possibility that the patient was falling in and out of consciousness either during the day or during the week, resulting in missing a few Salāhs during the day in the former case or missing a complete days Salāh in the latter. The general rule is that if the patient fell unconscious over a day (resulting in missing six Salāhs consecutively) then it would not be necessary to make Qadha of those Salāhs because the rule of Takleef (liability) is now uplifted due to the condition.[1] If this was not the case, but only was in and out of consciousness in between the five Salāhs then they must make Qadha of those missed Salāhs. So remember that the obligation of Qadha is uplifted if the patient missed six Salāhs all at once. Anything less than that or more but intermittently enough time to pray Salāh then Qadah is still necessary.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] Fatawa Hindiyyah, Kitābus Salāh, Qadha al-Fawait p. 134 vol 1

فَلَا قَضَاءَ عَلَى مَجْنُونٍ حَالَةَ جُنُونِهِ لِمَا فَاتَهُ فِي حَالَةِ عَقْلِهِ كَمَا لَا قَضَاءَ عَلَيْهِ فِي حَالَةِ عَقْلِ+هِ لِمَا فَاتَهُ حَالَةَ جُنُونِهِ وَلَا عَلَى مُرْتَدٍّ مَا فَاتَهُ زَمَنَ رِدَّتِهِ وَلَا عَلَى مُسْلِمٍ أَسْلَمَ فِي دَارِ الْحَرْبِ وَلَمْ يُصَلِّ مُدَّةً لِجَهْلِهِ بِوُجُوبِهَا وَلَا عَلَى مُغْمًى عَلَيْهِ وَمَرِيضٍ عَجَزَ عَنْ الْإِيمَاءِ مَا فَاتَهُ فِي تِلْكَ الْحَالَةِ وَزَادَتْ الْفَوَائِتُ عَلَى يَوْمٍ وَلَيْلَةٍ

Giving Hair Transplant

jknfatawa1 Medical

8th December 2016

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: Is it permissible to give a hair transplant like in the case of giving organ?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

In reference to your query, the laws of hair and organ donation are not the same. Organ transplantation has been permitted in circumstances where the safety of one’s life or health is at stake. The human body survives and remains healthy when the organs function properly. A dysfunctional organ when not treated increases harm to the body affecting its day to day functioning. Safeguarding one’s life and averting harm from oneself is among the high priorities of the Shari’ah. Hair transplant on the other and is purely for cosmetic reasons which has no connection to the day to day function of the body nor placing one’s life or health at stake. People generally implant hair to enhance their physical appearance thus, it is not analogous to organ transplant. The Messenger of Allāh sallallahu alayhi wasallam cursed those who attach hair with their own hair. The classical jurists explain that this prohibition is in reference to joining human hair only because it violates the human dignity.[1] It thus follows that if attaching human hair with another human hair is prohibited then donating one’s hair for transplant is also not permissible.

 [Allãh Knows Best]

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] Zuhayli, Fiqhul Islami wa addillatuhu  p. 578 vol 3

البَابُ السّابع: الحَظر والإباحة أحكام الشَّعر

ويحرم كما تقدم وصل الشعر بشعر آدمي آخر على الرجال والنساء الأيامى والمتزوجين، للتجمل وغيره، بلا خلاف، سواء كان شعر رجل أو امرأة، وسواء شعر المَحْرم والزوج وغيرهما بلا خلاف، لعموم الأدلة، ولأنه يحرم الانتفاع بشعر الآدمي وسائر أجزائه لكرامته، بل يدفن شعره وظفره وسائر أجزائه.

Kasāni, Badai Sanai p. 502-3 vol 6

كِتَابُ الِاسْتِحْسَانِ

وَيُكْرَهُ لِلْمَرْأَةِ أَنْ تَصِلَ شَعْرَ غَيْرِهَا مِنْ بَنِي آدَمَ بِشَعْرِهَا لِقَوْلِهِ – عَلَيْهِ الصَّلَاةُ وَالسَّلَامُ – «لَعَنَ اللَّهُ الْوَاصِلَةَ وَالْمُسْتَوْصِلَةَ» وَلِأَنَّ الْآدَمِيَّ بِجَمِيعِ أَجْزَائِهِ مُكَرَّمٌ وَالِانْتِفَاعُ بِالْجُزْءِ الْمُنْفَصِلِ مِنْهُ إهَانَةٌ لَهُ وَلِهَذَا كُرِهَ بَيْعُهُ وَلَا بَأْسَ بِذَلِكَ مِنْ شَعْرِ الْبَهِيمَةِ وَصُوفِهَا لِأَنَّهُ انْتِفَاعٌ بِطَرِيقِ التَّزَيُّنِ بِمَا يَحْتَمِلُ ذَلِكَ وَلِهَذَا احْتَمَلَ الِاسْتِعْمَالُ فِي سَائِرِ وُجُوهِ الِانْتِفَاعِ فَكَذَا فِي التَّزَيُّنِ

Sperm Donation without Marriage

jknfatawa1 Medical

5th December 2016

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: A particular sister intend to become pregnant from a donor. My questions are as follows;

  • Is it necessary upon her to have a Nikāh done with this donor? I am just thinking wouldn’t such an action without a Nikāh have implications on things like inheritance and who is a mahram, and who is not?
  • Is it permissible to have a Nikāh just for something like this? Would it be valid?
  • Will she have the Islamic right for a divorce because that’s what she intends to, she has no intention to live her life with a man, but merely wants a child.

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

As a point of principle, the only person a woman is allowed to receive a sperm from is her husband. Bearing children is a joint responsibility of the husband and wife requiring careful and skilful nurturing to safeguard the child’s welfare. A single mother would struggle to maintain this balance of nurturing without the life-long support from her husband. Marrying only for children and then to divorce upon the fulfilment of one’s needs is morally wrong. Marriage is a permanent union and should not be treated lightly. Once this is understood, the answers to your queries are as follows;

1) Yes, an Islamic Nikāh is fardh (obligatory) if she wants to have children. Randomly selecting a semen will not have implications on inheritance, mahram etc because the lineage will not be established to the donor outside of wedlock.[1] For the above factors to apply, Nikāh is necessary. But as pointed out, such method is not permissible.

2&3) She cannot simply have a Nikāh done for having children and thereafter request for a divorce. This conflicts with the general spirit of Nikāh in Islām because Nikāh is a lifelong commitment even after having children.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

[1] Fatawa Hndiyyah Kitāb Talāq – Fasl fi Thuboot Nasab, vol 1 p.  564

وَلَوْ زَنَى بِامْرَأَةٍ فَحَمَلَتْ، ثُمَّ تَزَوَّجَهَا فَوَلَدَتْ إنْ جَاءَتْ بِهِ لِسِتَّةِ أَشْهُرٍ فَصَاعِدًا ثَبَتَ نَسَبُهُ، وَإِنْ جَاءَتْ بِهِ لِأَقَلَّ مِنْ سِتَّةِ أَشْهُرٍ لَمْ يَثْبُتْ نَسَبُهُ إلَّا أَنْ يَدَّعِيَهُ وَلَمْ يَقُلْ: إنَّهُ مِنْ الزِّنَا أَمَّا إنْ قَالَ: إنَّهُ مِنِّي مِنْ الزِّنَا فَلَا يَثْبُتُ نَسَبُهُ وَلَا يَرِثُ مِنْهُ كَذَا فِي الْيَنَابِيعِ.

Automatic Occurrence of Divorce

jknfatawa1 Divorce
Automatic Occurrence of Divorce

3rd October 2016

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: A man divorced his wife by giving one Talaq-e-Bain (an irrevocable divorce) on the 18th of September and thereafter pronounced another two automatic divorces to occur on the 18th of every month in the same session. What is the Islamic ruling regarding such divorce?

 

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

In reference to your divorce query, her husband divorcing her thrice by attaching a single divorce to the 18th of each month results in her being divorced thrice irrevocably instantly which means that they can no longer reunite as former couples during her waiting period and neither thereafter.[1] It will be presumed here that the three divorces have already occurred except that the effectiveness of the remaining two will be postponed to the specific dates. Even if the husband wishes to withdraw from his pronunciation of the divorces before their occurrence then he cannot.

Issuing a Talāq-e-Bain (irrevocable divorce)[2] first, however, does not prevent the remaining two divorces taking into effect during her Iddah period. According to the standard principle explained by the Hanafi jurists, clear (Sareeh) divorce issued after a Talāq Ba’in becomes attached with a Ba’in (as in the subsequent divorces still counts).[3] In other words when the husband issued a Talāq-e-Bain (which instantly terminates the marriage) and thereafter during her Iddah issued a second clear divorce then they will be attached with the former Talāq-e-Bain except that this divorce results in an irrevocable divorce.[4] And now by attaching a third divorce then by the end of her waiting period, she becomes divorced thrice.

As a side note, it must be remembered that Islam has given the husband the right to divorce up to three after which there is no possibility of re-joining. Scholars explain that the chances of three divorces mean that when he gives one (and then withdraws) then only two chances remain and if he gives two (and withdraws) then only one divorce remains after which the marriage now becomes irreconcilable.[5] In the above case, attaching a divorce to the specific date of every month renders each of them effective, resulting in all three divorces being used up at the end irrespective of the type of divorce issued.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

[1] Ibn Nujaim, Bahr Raiq Kitāb Talāq Fasl Izafatut Talāq ila Zamān, p. 466 vol 3

وَفِي الذَّخِيرَةِ: الْحَاصِلُ أَنَّ الطَّلَاقَ إذَا أُضِيفَ إلَى وَقْتٍ لَا يَقَعُ مَا لَمْ يَجِئْ ذَلِكَ الْوَقْتُ، وَإِنْ أُضِيفَ الْوَقْتُ إلَى الطَّلَاقِ وَقَعَ لِلْحَالِ، وَتَوْضِيحُهُ فِيهَا وَقَيَّدَ بِقَوْلِهِ غَدًا لِأَنَّهُ لَوْ قَالَ: أَنْت طَالِقٌ لَا بَلْ غَدًا طَلُقَتْ السَّاعَةَ وَاحِدَةً، وَفِي الْغَدِ أُخْرَى كَذَا فِي الْمُحِيطِ مَعْزِيًّا إلَى أَبِي يُوسُفَ

 

Ibn Nujaim, Bahr Raiq Kitāb Talāq Bābul Kinayāt fi Talāq, p. 536 vol 3

وَالْمُعَلَّقُ بِالشَّرْطِ كَالْمُنَجَّزِ عِنْدَ وُجُودِهِ فَكَأَنَّهُ قَالَ فِي الْعِدَّة أَنْت طَالِقٌ بَائِنٌ وَلَوْ قَالَهُ وَقَعَ بِخِلَافِ أَنْتِ بَائِنٌ مُنْجَزًا فِي عِدَّةِ الْمُبَانَةِ لِأَنَّهُ صِفَةٌ لِلْمَرْأَةِ وَهِيَ لَمْ تَكُنْ مَحَلَّهُ لِأَنَّ مَحَلَّهُ مَنْ قَامَ بِهِ الِاتِّصَالُ، وَقَدْ انْقَطَعَتْ الْوَصْلَةُ بِالْإِبَانَةِ، وَالْمُضَافُ كَالْمُعَلَّقِ حَتَّى لَوْ قَالَ لَهَا أَنْت بَائِنٌ غَدًا نَاوِيًا الطَّلَاقَ ثُمَّ أَبَانَهَا ثُمَّ جَاءَ الْغَدُ وَقَعَتْ أُخْرَى

 

Ibn Abideen As-Shami Kitāb Talāq, Idhafatut Talāq ila Zamān, p.486 vol 4

(قَوْلُهُ أَوْ كُلَّ جُمُعَةٍ) مَحَلُّهُ مَا إذَا نَوَى كُلَّ جُمُعَةٍ تَمُرُّ بِأَيَّامِهَا عَلَى الدَّهْرِ أَوْ لَمْ تَكُنْ لَهُ نِيَّةٌ، وَإِنْ كَانَتْ نِيَّتُهُ عَلَى كُلِّ يَوْمِ جُمُعَةٍ فَهِيَ طَالِقٌ فِي كُلِّ يَوْمِ جُمُعَةٍ حَتَّى تَبِينَ بِثَلَاثٍ ط عَنْ الْبَحْرِ. وَحَاصِلُهُ إنْ نَوَى بِالْجُمُعَةِ الْأُسْبُوعَ أَوْ أَطْلَقَ فَوَاحِدَةٌ، وَإِنْ نَوَى الْيَوْمَ الْمَخْصُوصَ فَثَلَاثٌ لِوُجُودِ الْفَاصِلِ بَيْنَ الْأَيَّامِ كَمَا يَتَّضِحُ قَرِيبًا ً

[2] A Tālaq-e-Bain is an irrevocable divorce whereby when the husband issues, it breaks the marriage instantly except that the wife must still observe her divorce period.

[3] Ibn Nujaim, Bahr Raiq Kitāb Talāq Bābul Kinayāt fi Talāq, p. 531 vol 3

(قَوْلُهُ: وَالصَّرِيحُ يَلْحَقُ الصَّرِيحَ، وَالْبَائِنَ) فَلَوْ قَالَ لَهَا: أَنْت طَالِقٌ ثُمَّ قَالَ أَنْت طَالِقٌ أَوْ طَلَّقَهَا عَلَى مَالِ وَقَعَ الثَّانِي وَكَذَا لَوْ قَالَ لَهَا: أَنْت بَائِنٌ أَوْ خَالَعَهَا عَلَى مَالٍ ثُمَّ قَالَ لَهَا: أَنْت طَالِقٌ أَوْ هَذِهِ طَالِقٌ كَمَا فِي الْبَزَّازِيَّةِ يَقَعُ عِنْدَنَا لِحَدِيثِ الْخُدْرِيِّ مُسْنَدًا «الْمُخْتَلِعَةُ يَلْحَقُهَا صَرِيحُ الطَّلَاقِ مَا دَامَتْ فِي الْعِدَّةِ» وَلِمَا ذُكِرَ فِي الْأُصُولِ مِنْ بَحْثِ الْخَاصِّ أَطْلَقَهُ فَشَمِلَ الْمُنَجَّزَ، وَالْمُعَلَّقَ إذَا وُجِدَ شَرْطٌ فَكَمَا يَقَعُ فِي الْعِدَّةِ مُنْجَزًا يَقَعُ إذَا وُجِدَ شَرْطٌ فِيهَا.

Ibn Nujaim, Bahr Raiq Kitāb Talāq Bābul Kinayāt fi Talāq, p. 533 vol 3

قَوْلُهُ: وَالْبَائِنُ يَلْحَقُ الصَّرِيحَ) كَمَا إذَا قَالَ لَهَا: أَنْت طَالِقٌ ثُمَّ قَالَ لَهَا فِي الْعِدَّةِ أَنْت بَائِنٌ أَطْلَقَهُ فَشَمِلَ مَا إذَا خَالَعَهَا أَوْ طَلَّقَهَا عَلَى مَالٍ بَعْدَ الطَّلَاقِ الرَّجْعِيِّ فَيَصِحُّ وَيَجِبُ الْمَالُ كَمَا فِي الْخُلَاصَةِ

 

[4] Ibn Nujaim, Bahr Raiq Kitāb Talāq Bābul Kinayāt fi Talāq, p. 533 vol 3, Ibn Abideen As-Shami Kitāb Talāq, Bābul Kinayāt, p.540 vol 4

وَإِذَا لَحِقَ الصَّرِيحُ الْبَائِنَ كَانَ بَائِنًا لِأَنَّ الْبَيْنُونَةَ السَّابِقَةَ عَلَيْهِ تَمْنَعُ الرَّجْعَةَ كَمَا فِي الْخُلَاصَةِ

 

[5] Ahsanul Fatawa, Kitāb at-Talāq p.158 vol 5

Financing Islamic Projects with Lottery Funds

jknfatawa1 Finance

27th August 2016

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: Can Big Lottery funding be used to support community-based activities like parent/toddler groups, parenting programmer in a Masjid or Madrasah setting or for an Islamic welfare project?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

From the Islamic legal perspective, lottery funds fall within the scheme of gambling which Allāh Almighty explicitly prohibits in the Holy Qur’ān.[1] The Holy Qur’ān describes the earning of gambling as rijs (impure). The mainstream scholars of Islām prohibit utilising impure wealth for general Islamic welfare projects because Allāh Almighty only accepts that which is pure. Ibn Ābideen Shāmi rahimahullah, a renowned Hanafi jurist, explains the ruling of all unlawful income that they must be either returned to the source from where they were obtained otherwise disposed of by giving it away to the most destitute people (without the intention of the reward).[2] This was mentioned to differentiate between giving charity and disposing of wealth. Charity brings reward in return which is only possible through lawful income whereas disposing of the unlawful wealth (to the neediest) is not rewardable at all. Some scholars have permitted utilising unlawful income like lottery funds to finance general non-Islamic welfare projects.[3] But for Islamic welfare projects, it won’t be permissible.

 

[Allãh Knows Best]

 

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

 

[1] Sūrah Maidah 5:90

[2] Al-Shāmi Durrul Mukhtar wa hashiyah Ibn Abideen, Book of Zakāt, Bāb Zakāt al-Ghanam, p 218 vol 3

(قَوْلُهُ: كَمَا لَوْ كَانَ الْكُلُّ خَبِيثًا) فِي الْقُنْيَةِ لَوْ كَانَ الْخَبِيثُ نِصَابًا لَا يَلْزَمُهُ الزَّكَاةُ؛ لِأَنَّ الْكُلَّ وَاجِبُ التَّصَدُّقِ عَلَيْهِ فَلَا يُفِيدُ إيجَابَ التَّصَدُّقِ بِبَعْضِهِ

Al-Shāmi Durrul Mukhtar wa hashiyah Ib Abideen, Book of Hadhr wal Ibāhat, Fsl fil Bai, p 553 vol 9

لَوْ مَاتَ رَجُلٌ وَكَسْبُهُ مِنْ ثَمَنِ الْبَاذَقِ وَالظُّلْمِ أَوْ أَخْذِ الرِّشْوَةِ تَعُودُ الْوَرَثَةُ وَلَا يَأْخُذُونَ مِنْهُ شَيْئًا وَهُوَ الْأَوْلَى لَهُمْ وَيَرُدُّونَهُ عَلَى أَرْبَابِهِ إنْ عَرَفُوهُمْ، وَإِلَّا يَتَصَدَّقُوا بِهِ؛ لِأَنَّ سَبِيلَ الْكَسْبِ الْخَبِيثِ التَّصَدُّقُ إذَا تَعَذَّرَ الرَّدُّ

[3] Shaykh Khalid Saifullah Rahmāni, Kitābul Fatāwa, p. 308, Vol 5

 

Quran Recitation and Speaker

jknfatawa1 Miscellaneous

24th August 2016

 

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question – We have a monitor linked to the local masjid in our house. If a bayān is on is it best to turn it off if I am reading the Qur’ān? Usually there are many time when Muhammad SAW is mentioned and I know we always have to repeat SAW but if I am reading should I turn this off so not to have to break during Qur’ān to repeat what is heard on the monitor?

 

الجواب حامداًَ و مصلياًَ

In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

 

Answer

 

If you are engaged in recitation of the Holy Qur’ān and suddenly a scholar delivers a speech transmitted through the receiver in your home then best to turn it off so that you give full attention to the Holy Qur’an. If you wish to listen to the speech and stop reciting then even that is ok.

 

 

 [Allāh Knows Best]

 

 

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

Divorced women working during Iddah

jknfatawa1 Divorce
Divorced women working during Iddah

20th August 2016

السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته

Question: Is it permissible for a divorced woman to continue working during her waiting period? They separated on the basis that the husband never provided nafaqah (maintenance) for her nor contributed to the home utility expenditure. The wife was compelled to find a job to pay for the household expenditure and bring food to the table. If she does not work during her waiting period, she will end up losing her job. So can she work during her waiting period?

In addition, would the similar ruling apply to a woman who is studying an Ālim course at her local institute? Can she attend her regular classes during her waiting period or not?

الجواب حامداً و مصلياً

In the name of Allāh, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer

The general Islamic view point is that a female divorcee cannot emerge from her home during her waiting period due to the explicit Qur’anic command on this matter except due to extreme necessity; where it involves physical and monetary harm. It is the husband’s moral responsibility to provide for her daily expenses during that time and failing to do so will be a sin on his part. However, if it is the case where the wife is compelled to work because her husband refuses to provide for her and nobody is willing to financially support her then as a last resort, the jurists such as Ibn Nujaim rahimahullah have permitted such divorcee to emerge to earn her livelihood during her waiting period due to necessity.[1] It must be made clear here that concessions are limited to the extent necessary, and where the necessity is removed then so is the concession. Due to the necessity case, this rule of concession is restricted only to work and cannot be extended to other areas where physical or monetary harm is not incurred. So reasons such as studying, visiting family relatives and so on are not legitimate reasons for her to emerge during her Iddah.

 [Allãh Knows Best]

Written by (Mufti) Abdul Waheed

Answer Attested by Shaykh Mufti Saiful Islam

JKN Fatawa Department

[1] Ibn Nujaim, Bahr Raiq, Kitābut Talāq -Fasl Fil Ihdād, vol 6 p. 259

وَالْحَاصِلُ أَنَّ مَدَارَ الْحِلِّ كَوْنُ خُرُوجِهَا بِسَبَبِ قِيَامِ شُغْلِ الْمَعِيشَةِ فَيَتَقَدَّرُ بِقَدْرِهِ فَمَتَى انْقَضَتْ حَاجَتُهَا لَا يَحِلُّ لَهَا بَعْدَ ذَلِكَ صَرْفُ الزَّمَانِ خَارِجَ بَيْتِهَا كَذَا فِي فَتْحِ الْقَدِيرِ وَأَقُولُ: لَوْ صَحَّ هَذَا عَمَّمَ أَصْحَابُنَا الْحُكْمَ فَقَالُوا لَا تَخْرُجُ الْمُعْتَدَّةُ عَنْ طَلَاقٍ أَوْ مَوْتٍ إلَّا لِضَرُورَةٍ؛ لِأَنَّ الْمُطَلَّقَةَ تَخْرُجُ لِلضَّرُورَةِ بِحَسْبِهَا لَيْلًا كَانَ أَوْ نَهَارًا وَالْمُعْتَدَّةُ عَنْ مَوْتٍ كَذَلِكَ فَأَيْنَ الْفَرْقُ؟

Durrul Mukhtār wa hashiyah Ibn Ābideen Shāmi, Kitāb Talāb, Fasl Fil Ihdād, vol 5  p. 223

قَالَ فِي الْفَتْحِ: وَالْحَقُّ أَنَّ عَلَى الْمُفْتِي أَنْ يَنْظُرَ فِي خُصُوصِ الْوَقَائِعِ، فَإِنْ عَلِمَ فِي وَاقِعَةٍ عَجْزَ هَذِهِ الْمُخْتَلِعَةِ عَنْ الْمَعِيشَةِ إنْ لَمْ تَخْرُجْ أَفْتَاهَا بِالْحِلِّ، وَإِنْ عَلِمَ قُدْرَتَهَا أَفْتَاهَا بِالْحُرْمَةِ اهـ وَأَقَرَّهُ فِي النَّهْرِ والشُّرُنبُلالِيَّة.